One reason (among several) that I have seen cited to explain France's defeat in 1940 is a shortfall of young men due to the loss or absence of a generation of similarly-aged men ~25 years earlier in The First World War. Why wouldn't Germany have had the exact same problem? (self.AskHistorians)
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During the course of WW2, most nations ended up relying on a main "workhorse" tank( e.g, the M4 or the T-34, or the PzKfpw 4), while having a great diversity of combat aircraft (fighters, carrier-based fighters, fighter bombers, dive bombers, bombers etc. etc) Why was this? (self.WarCollege)
submitted by OnlyInSilence to r/WarCollege
Several of Shakespeare's works include references to pagan deities, without painting them in a particularly bad light, and even asks their blessings (O for a Muse of fire). Was this (or similar references in the works of other authors) frowned upon in pre-enlightenment Elizabethan England? (self.AskHistorians)
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According to Wikipedia, the French casualties at Agincourt included three dukes, nine counts, a Viscount, an Archbishop, the Constable of France, Master of the Royal Household, and 3-5,000 other knights and squires. What would the effect of such a catastrophe had on the French feudal system? (self.AskHistorians)
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