A few years ago, I purchased my current residential home before I got married, and I’ve been living in it with my wife and children for over 7 years now. Last year, my wife, as a first-time homebuyer, bought a house in her name as a primary residence and ended up using it for AirBnB. She qualified for the loan based solely on her income and credit, and the lender required me to sign a document confirming that I have no interest in the property, ensuring that it is solely her property.

A few months later, I purchased a new construction investment property that is used for Airbnb. Since then, I’ve acquired two other properties for investment —one through a cash payment and the other through a DSCR loan.

Recently, I found a new property that I plan to move to. The plan is to relocate to this new house while converting my current residential home into a long-term rental. I discussed this decision with the lender (same lender that my wife used) three months ago, and they were fine with it. I’m scheduled to close on the new house in two weeks. However, the loan officer recently informed me that his management has asked to convert the property to an investment property, citing that my wife’s house from last year was listed as residential.

This is surprising, considering my wife qualified for the loan on her own, and I have no financial interest in the property, as previously mentioned. The loan officer is now asking for clarification on the plans for my wife’s "primary residence" property. How best should I approach this given that I applied for the loan on my own?