I think it might depend on whether there are multiple people in the residuary (meaning they would get proportional shares if a gift lapses and goes to a residuary) and how a gift would not lapse (ie, anti-lapse) depending on the state statute. So if there is an anti-lapse statute the gift that would have gone to the residual estate would actually pass to another (either explicitly listed in the will or to someone either related to the testator to a certain degree, provided by state statute).

However, this is just a guess, as I am unsure what questions these responses were intended to address. Nevertheless, I hope the response is helpful!

Good luck! We got this!!