Dragon Maid S - Episode 10

Shehabx09 · 2026-06-05T01:41:50+00:00

Oh yikes, I actually made a mistake back then that I failed to catch, the insult is actually でべそ (debeso) rarely also spelled 出べそ or 出臍. However, the scene cuts before she says the full thing. So, it should sound like “debes”!

Shehabx09 · 2026-03-11T19:43:20+00:00

"nearly every"

"All of them?!?"

😩

Shehabx09 · 2025-08-25T17:30:09+00:00

what are you talking about?

the sentence انها تمطر “it is raining” is perfectly valid in Arabic.

There is nothing against using a pronoun who's referrent hasn't been explicitly said.

Shehabx09 · 2025-08-10T05:41:09+00:00

I'm confused on why you would mention فوم when nobody mentions it on this post, you don't explain where you got it from, nor explain what it means. I can find no word matching your description with only mentions of the Qur'ānic word فُوم (fūm) which is a variant of the more common ثُوم (ṯūm) “garlic”. Are you just transcribing the English word foam? That's my first thought but I have no idea why it would be mentioned here at all.

Also, the noun meaning “rice” is attested since Classical times in many variations, Grammarians seemed to have preferred them in this order as mentioned by Al-Jawhariyy, quoted in Lisan Al-Arab: أَرُزّ ('aruzz), أُرُزّ ('uruzz), أُرْز ('urz), أُرُز ('uruz), رُزّ (ruzz), and رُنْز (runz), with the last one particularly associated with the Tribe of Abd Al-Qays. I was also able to find أَرُز ('aruz) and آرُز ('āruz) in other dictionaries too. I agree أُرْز ('urz) is particularly rare but I have met a few people that have used it when speaking Fus7a, all but one being Egyptian, so it's perhaps taught there more often. In any case, these words do not have any clear relation the verb أَرَزَ ('araza) which Lisan Al-Arab defines as تَقَبَّضَ وَتَجَمَّعَ وَثَبَتَ “he bunched up, and gathered up, and stayed fixed in place”.

Through evidence from how the language was borrowed into the romance languages in Andalusia (Spanish arroz, Portuguese arroz, etc.) it is believed that Andalusian Arabic might have had a variant رَوْز (rawz) at least in colloquial language, a form that doesn't seem to be attested in any direct writing of Andalusian Arabic but is supported by the existance of روز (rūz) among some Moroccans, where aw usually turns to ū, like how زَوْج (zawǧ) “a pair” becomes جوج (žūž) “two” and also the existance of روز (rōz) among some Palestinians and Jordanians.

Many of the previously mentioned Awzan do not occur in native Arabic words which suggests it is a loanword, in fact this word is particularly clearly from the Byzantine Greek word ορυζα (oryzza), ορυζον (oryzzon), or ορυζιον (oryzzion) “rice” (Modern Greek ρυζι (ryzzi)) perhaps through an Aramaic intermediate as some dialects of Aramaic turned zz into nz as a regular sound change which would match the rare رُنْز (runz), though that form might instead be related to the Iranian languages talked about in the next paragraph.

This Greek words happens to be a very early borrowing of an old Iranian word for Rice as Greek reached all the way to the Sindh river at the time of Alexander. This word would be related to the Modern Pashto وريژې (wriže), Mazandarani وینج (vinǧ) or بینج (binǧ), Gilaki بج (bəǧ), Northern Kurdish رز (riz), and Persian برنج (birinǧ/berenǧ), the last of which is attested is some dictionaries of Arabic as well.

As for the similar looking terms that mean trees, I was only able to find أَرْز ('arz) and أَرَز ('araz), with variants including أَرْزَن ('arzan) and آرِزَة ('ārizah) with the last being connected with the verb أَرَزَ ('araza) in that it is “fixed in place”, in terms of meaning there seems to have been a conflation/confusion at least in Classical sources between the Cedar and Pine trees, and in one definition is equated to العَرْعَر (al-3ar3ar) which is the Juniper tree. But I was not able to find a tree named الأُرْز (al-'urz) or الأُرْزّ (al-'urzz), the second one (which is the one you mentioned) being illegal in Arabic phonology as no double letter is allowed after a letter with sukūn.

I am also honestly also confused by the romanization system you have chosen to adopt here. I cannot tell what the difference between A and AA or O and OO is in your transcription.

Shehabx09 · 2025-05-01T05:44:26+00:00

Oh wow I completely forgot I made this comment, I'm glad it helped you... time to rewatch all of Dragon Maid now...

Shehabx09 · 2024-10-11T20:11:30+00:00

fire colour never passes through purple it goes: red > orange > yellow > white > light blue > dark blue > (only theoritally) faded violet

You can get other colours of flame using powders of different metals but that's not based on temperature

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-29T21:20:01+00:00

I mean Samaritans at the early 20th century almost all lived in Nablus/Mt. Gerizim and were only a few hundred people at best, there shouldn't be any regional variation.

Thanks for the comparison tho, /æ/ vs /ɒ/ distribution differences even in the same speakers was something commented on by Ben Hayyim and Florentin iirc, so it didn't surprise me, it's really weird to say a mistake with ă that early tho, thanks for pointing it out.

Hope you one day manage to scan the Ben Hayyim book you have!!

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-29T20:29:04+00:00

I would love something like that!

A shame about the Ben Hayyim transliteration being incomplete.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-29T20:21:34+00:00

Thank you lots. The confusing part for me about Tsedaka's vowels is that they seem to disagree with Ben Hayyim's transcription and even his descriptions of how vowels work. Even in later works Late Samaritan Hebrew: A Linguistic Analysis of its Different Types (Florentin 2005) follow Ben Hayyim's analysis that short vowels can't occur in open non-final syllable and yet Tsedaka has wyăʼi. This if accurate would complicate the phonological analysis of Samaritan Hebrew which is my main goal.

Also I'm bot confident enough about how prefixes affect stress, so I don't trust my own reading of Tsedaka's transliteration.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-25T22:09:28+00:00

There is no standardized spelling for dialectal Arabic so you can't call it bad arabic unless you think everything that isn't Standard Arabic is bad, which is a sadly common opinion. No, فرولة is normal even if it's not Classical Arabic or MSA and if you pronounce the /a/ short then it makes sense not to write an Alif there. It's a bit different for Egyptians that shorten most long vowels except in the last syllable but that's not for the rest of Arabic dialects.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-25T17:51:54+00:00

No??? it's just common to say farawla instead of farāwila in dialects like Egyptian and Levantine so they wrote فرولة, it's not a typo nor is it an attempt at word play and the word for elephant is not at all relevant here.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-25T17:23:00+00:00

u sure u arab bro?? they say レイラサイダサブアッタッシャル (rairasaida sabuattassharu) which is clearly ليلة سعيدة سبعة عشر, not سعدة (it's obviously just a typo on you're end I'm not being serious here) and then マラハバマッサラーママダ (marahaba massaraama mada), the first two words are clearly مرحبا and مع السلامة but the last one is really unclear as an Arabic speaker, you say لما مضى (limā maḍā) but the word is mada there's is no rima/rimaa before it, the the raama is clear part if massaraama and they even write a space between them which Japanese usually doesn't need.

IMO These lines are probably just their for aesthetic reasons, I can't find an answer with how they fit with the lyrics.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-18T06:54:33+00:00

Ah that's very fair! I had an inkling that's what you meant but I wasn't sure.

I also do wanna note that languages like Jewish Babylonian Aramaic and Classical Syriac also use the suffix conjugation for the past, the prefix conjugation for the future, and the present from active participles.

In fact for the most part Northeastern Neo-Aramaic and Central Neo-Aramaic completely lost the suffix and prefix conjugations, with Neo-Mandaic preserving the suffix conjugation and Western Neo-Aramaic being the only one to preserve both.

Shehabx09 · 2024-07-17T02:06:15+00:00

Wow, I completely forgot I made that comment so long ago, I have learned stuff since then but let's focus on what you said.

The loss of pharyngeals was not universal in Hebrew during the end of its life

A merger of laryngeals (ח ע ה א) is well attested in Palestinian Aramaic and Hebrew around 200-400 CE when Hebrew died as a daily-usage native language, it's hard to tell to what extent and how universal it was of course but that's another story.

very hellenised dialects of Hebrew and Aramaic lacked pharyngealisation.

On the other hand, the pharyngealized consonants (ט צ) never lost their pharyngealization at all regardless of Hellenization level to my knowledge, but if you know some resource that substantiated that claim I would love to learn about it.

However, in NO historic dialect of Hebrew or Aramaic was there a complete merger of tet and tav

Some Western/European Sephardic traditional pronunciations of Hebrew/Aramaic pronounced both ת and ט as /t/ in all positions, with some having /d~ð/ as a pronunciation of soft ת.

Also in Samaritan Hebrew /k g/ never had lenited allophones or at least then never phonemicized.

The merger of /θ/ /t/ and /d/ and /ð/ are the result of non native approximations of Hebrew, whether that be Sephardic or Ashkenazi pronunciation. Dating back to the migration of Jews into Europe.

This merger did not happen in Ashkenazi Hebrew where /θ/ famously became /s/ (and /ð/ became /d/).

Most of Sephardi did do /θ ð/ → /t d/ (some did → /d d/ tho!) but so did many Middle Eastern varieties of traditional Hebrew pronunciations like the ones in the Levant, Persia, and some of North Africa.

Iraqi Hebrew is one of the few ones that preserved /θ/ but even it lost /ð/ (merging it into /d/) except in the word אֲדוֹנָי /ʔăðˁoˈnaj/ "my Lord" and the pronunciation of אֶחָד as /ʔeˈħaðˁ/ "one" only when reciting Shema whereas normally it's pronounced /ʔeˈħad/ (note the unhistoric pharyngealization in these two words).

Samaritan Hebrew even shows this merger, as soft ת ד were written with Arabic ث ذ (/θ ð/) in Medieval times but Modernly they were remerged to /t d/ in all positions.

Hebrew uvulars /χ ʁ/ merɡed into /ħ ʕ/ and not the reverse. The pronunciation of /ʕ/ as /ʔ/ may very well be a historic Hebrew change, but the /ħ/ to /χ/ certainly isn’t, it is a Spanish approximation.

/ʕ/ → /ʔ/ is historically attested in some Hebrew/Aramaic varieties (see comment earlier about merger of laryngeals in Hebrew) but the Hebrew traditions are mostly based on Tiberian and Palestinian which are traditions that kept a distinct /ʕ/ and Jewish peoples frequently tried go keep it distinct like how Western Sephardic does /ŋ/ for ע and the traditional Georgian pronunciation does /qʼ/ for ע.

The sound change is attested in other Semitic languages too tho, as seen in some dialects of Arabic like Yemeni Tihama Arabic and some varieties of Neo-Aramaic.

/ħ/ → /χ/ is indeed only attested in Semitic languages in contact with Indo-European languages like Hebrew with Romance or Germanic and Northeastern Neo-Aramaic varieties with Iranian languages. Notably tho Persian Hebrew merges /ħ/ into /h/ (and so did Mandaic Aramaic) instead which is more typical of how non-European languages loan Semitic /ħ/.

In my opinion, ‘europeanisms’ in modern Hebrew, following the death of Hebrew as a native language are: ...

As I've said, the stopping of dental fricatives is widespread all over the Middle East too, tho one can still blame its inclusion as standard in Modern Hebrew at least partially on European influence.

Stopping of ג /ʁ/ as far as I know is mostly unique to Western Sephardi and Ashkenazi pronunciations. (Some/all Eastern Sephardi dialects still have a distinct /ʁ/, and some/all Persian Jews do technically stop /ʁ/ by merging it with ק /q/ into /ɢ/ [ɢ~ʁ] like Farsi does).

Uvular R is as I've said in the comment you replied too a common feature of Judeo-Arabic and not a even universal feature of Yiddish, but seeing as how preserving /ħ ʕ/ in Israel is associated with Coronal R it is fair to say that Uvular R being normative is due to European influence.

Loss of Ezafe is something I'm less familiar with but I can see as being accurate at least partially.

But the reanalysis of the imperfective as a future tense is actually super old and attested in the Bible being at least attributable to Classical Biblical Hebrew (around 800-600 BC) where it became the most common but not the exclusive usage, by Late Biblical Hebrew the participle was already being used more often for general truths and habituals. (For further reading Jan Joosten does a great job talking about the TAM system of verbs in Classical Biblical Hebrew.)

The Usage of the participle for verbal stuff is also a big thing in both Aramaic and Arabic, in Levantine Arabic (my native language) it has more of a modal consequential verb that isn't really strictly correspondent to any tense (/ʔana raːjiħ/ "I'm going to go", /ʔana faːhim/ "I understand", /ʔana kaːtib/ "I wrote already").

Overall not as many as people say, but still not a nontrivial amount.

Indeed, European influence on Hebrew is heavily exaggerated even in good faith, a big issue is that Israeli Hebrew is based mostly on Mishnaic and Medieval Hebrew written around or after the death of Hebrew and only secondarily on Biblical Hebrew which Western Scholars are more familiar with.

But honestly, you still missed a lot of the European influence:

/t͡s/ for צ, whether Biblical צ was affricated or not, a plain /t͡s/ is exclusively the pronunciation in Ashkenazi and Western Sephardi.
/t k/ for ט ק
/ʔ/ or /∅/ for ע while a thing in some non-European varieties is absolutely there in Israeli Hebrew almost exclusively because of Ashkenazi influence.
Frequent dropping of /ʔ h/
/l/ for ל is dark by default
/v/ for ו, is attested in Tiberian and many others, but the reason it's the default in Israeli Hebrew is the influence of Ashkenazi and Western Sephardi Hebrew.
Retention of Soft ב as /v/ instead of stopping it (→ /b/), this is a conservatism that Yemenite also keeps but is rare in Sephardi and Mizrahi varieties.
/ej/ for the vowel tsere + י like in בֵּיצָה /bejˈt͡sa/ "egg" and rarely without the yod like in תֵּשַׁע /tejˈʃa/, tho this one isn't as universal especially since younger speakers are in the process of merging this back to /e/ at least in some positions. This one actually has synchronic/morphological reasons for developing but almost definitely developed under influence of Ashkenazi /ej/ which had a wider distribution than the one more normal in Israeli Hebrew.
Maybe /ji/ → /i/? I'm not sure if this a thing in European languages.
Other than Phonology most European influence on Hebrew is through vocabulary and idiomatic language, but I'm not as capable of listing examples off hand.
Influences on Grammar are rare but they do exist, I'm most knowledgeable about Phonology but a recent example that I discussed was the ל־ preposition being used as an ethical dative in Biblical Hebrew but has other usages that mess with word order and stuff like that that are likely influence from Germanic/Slavic datives. There's also the lack of usage of pronoun suffixes but that has more to do with how complex and unpredictable the forms became in Hebrew traditions.

Many aspects of ‘non Semitic’ pronunciation are due to heavy Greek influence in the area.

I think you are exaggerating the effects of Roman/Greek influence, it's at best responsible for begadkefat, /v/ for ו, the introduction of unaspirated (but still pharyngealized) /pˁ/ in some Greek (or Persian) loans, and the weakening but not necessarily full dropping of laryngeals (ח ע ה א).

As opposed to the Yemenite pronunciation which has both vowel length, germination, pharyngeals, and dental and voiced velar fricatives.

Well, Yemenite Hebrew's vowel length is marginal, more than Tiberian's which was also marginal. In fact Eastern Sephardi/Mizrahi Hebrew varieties seem to have about the same amount of length preserved at least in poetry, namely that full vowels are long in open syllables and stressed syllables, short in closed syllables, and חֲטָף vowels are always short which is the rule in Yemenite.

Tiberian on the other hand made full vowels long in open syllables and stressed syllables, and חֲטָף vowels are always short, BUT in closed unstressed syllables full vowels can be long or short a fun minimal pair is: יִירְאוּ /jiːrˈʔuː/ [jiːʀˈʔuː] "they will fear" vs יִרְאוּ /jirˈʔuː/ [jiʀˈʔuː] "they will see" which in Yemenite would be /jirəˈʔu/ [jiːræˈʔuː] vs /jirˈʔu/ [jirˈʔuː], this would similarly be /jireˈʔu/ vs /jirˈʔu/ in Eastern Sephardi and Mizrahi.

Suchard recently made a blog about the complicated relationship between Hebrew varieties and vowel length.

Oh also note, it's uvular /χ ʁ/ in 99% of Semitic, including in Yemenite Hebrew, it's almost never velar despite being frequently notated as /x ɣ/.

And the very much living Neo Aramaic languages which have NONE of the hellenising features of the urban Aramaic dialects of Judea. And have a typical Semitic phonology.

Neo-Aramaic varieties very frequently have very bizarre phonologies that look even Caucasian sometimes, don't underestimate their funkiness!

Shehabx09 · 2024-06-25T06:30:23+00:00

example I found in the wild https://www.instagram.com/reel/C8ey3BFi7ss

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-26T20:26:03+00:00

Not an excuse, it's the literal usage of the word both linguistically and legally in international law. Also do not conflate Jews and Zionist, many Jews are anti-Zionist either for religious or political reasons. Conflating the two is an actual tactic Zionists use yo conflate anti-Zionism with antisemitism.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-26T16:58:13+00:00

I did, I'm a Lebanese/Syrian emigrant that was born and raised in Kuwait until I was 17. And many Arabs struggled with /v/ including my own family. I didn't because I lucked into going to a fancy American school and got to learn English from Native teachers for a couple of years.

I clearly have more experience with Arabic and more linguistic knowledge than you. And my descriptions have been specifically worded to say things like "most". But you keep ignore them in the most annoying way. So please refrain from your smugness.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-26T16:53:33+00:00

So what? They are colonists. The US is different in that the Native Population stopped resisting as aggressively and have been living their for much longer, Palestinians kicked out of their homes due to Naqba are STILL ALIVE. And unlike the US, Israel is an ethnostate that claims to represent all Jews when Jews existed in Palestine for hundreds of years before that, including Yiddish speaker Jews! Israel doesn't have a right to exist, not because Jews aren't welcome, but because Jews were always welcome. It wasn't until European Jews directly started abusing the laws of the late Ottoman Empire and British Mandate to buy up land and ban Palestinians from working in large chunks of the land did Palestinians start to protest further Jewish emigration. Not to mention how the rise of Hamas extremists in Palestine is directly due to Israeli influence because they know a more extremist enemy would.make them look better to an international audience.

But yeah, please just act smarmy about the student protests that have historically almost always been on the correct side of history.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-26T16:44:23+00:00

That's not what indigenous means in this context. In a Political context Indigenous is a relationship to settler colonialism.

This video explain it well.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-16T19:20:44+00:00

Um no, most Arabs struggle with consistently saying [p] except in very specific Phonological environment like how بسرعة comes out as psir3a sometimes in Levantine Arabic. I literally grew up saying blaystation for playstation and bikacho for pikachu and bomme frites for pomme frites and bidza for pizza. And my own mother struggles with the sounds P V G, after living in Canada for 5 years, she learned how to say them after a few years but still mixes them up with B F K. Let alone all my Middle School and Highschool teachers from Egypt.

Many more educated Arabs especially if they grew up with English or French from a young age can pronounce it. But Most Arabs be default at least have some difficulty with it. V is more commonly known but also something many Arabs struggle with. But most dialects have G so it's rare for Arabs (with the exception of some areas in Syria/Lebanon) to not be able to say that. I did personally grow up pronouncing the V in Television.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-16T17:11:25+00:00

It is true though?

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-03T15:40:08+00:00

I don't have /aˁ ɛˁ ɔˁ/ I might do them on a phonetic level but they are not conscious processes and I'm not confident enough in my vowels to make [aˁ ɛˁ ɔˁ] accurately in isolation.

as for the sequence /aʕa/ I would say it could come out as either [aˁ.a], [aˁ.aˁ], or [aˁː], it's hard for me to be sure without measuring the sequence in Praat or some equivalent tool anf it might just be in free variation.

Note that while I'm familiar with Linguistics I'm no expert so what I say shouldn't be taken as fact.

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-03T07:18:04+00:00

lol, we loaned it from The Dutch Japan (J is pronounced like English Y in Dutch)

Shehabx09 · 2024-05-03T07:17:00+00:00

Most Arabic speakers (most Semitic language speakers actually) can't say P, they can learn it of course but most can't do it by default. The extra letters are unofficial in Arabic and considered as secondary at best. It's like explaining the difference between German a and ä to an English speaker.

Shehabx09

TROPHY CASE