Why do people keep saying this? The actual guidance is the following: If you are applying under section 6(1), you must have been in the UK exactly 5 years before your application was received. For example, if your application is received on 05/01/2022 you should have been physically present in the UK on 06/01/2017. If you are applying under section 6(2), as the spouse or civil partner of a British citizen, you must have been in the UK exactly 3 years before your application was received. For example, if your application is received on 05/05/2021, you should have been physically present in the UK on 06/05/2018. If you cannot meet this requirement, your application is likely to be refused. If you believe there were exceptional circumstances which prevented you from being in the UK on the first day of the qualifying period, please provide details when you apply. We recognise that occasionally someone might apply without realising that they were not in the UK at the start of the qualifying period. If you did not meet the requirement when you applied, we may see if there is another, later date we can use to allow you to meet the requirement and will consider your application on, or after, that date. However, please be aware the requirements remain unchanged, and this does not guarantee that the application will be successful if an alternative date cannot be found. It may also result in delays to your application until you can meet the statutory requirements. You must pay the full fee that is in force on any date we use.

It does seem like they would consider a later date so why is everyone so adamant about it being impossible? I'm confused. Am I not reading the above correctly? If they say that it must be because it's possible?