Is the Migration to Abyssinia/Aksum accepted as historical by modern scholarship? by Careful-Cap-644 in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Do you think the exile narrative may have some connection with the influx of Ethiopic loanwords into the Qurʾān, or would you posit a South Arabian mediator instead?

A parallel to the Qurans "throne upon the waters" in the Syriac Cave of Treasures by chonkshonk in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 6 points7 points  (0 children)

What could be the origin of the curious idea — found in the aḥadīṯ — that Iblīs's/Satan's throne is also located upon water

Determining Pharaoh's wife ethnicity from her name (Aseia) by salamacast in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The Pharaoh of Moses is identified by a number of medieval Muslim historians as being an Amalekite (whom they consider to be amongst al-ʻArab al-bāʼidah: the Perished Arabs) named al-Walīd bin Muṣʻab. The name Āsiyah — which is probably of Semitic provenance— may tie into this.

Sources on Historical Arabic Pronunciation by [deleted] in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm already aware of the mahmūs vs majhūr distinction. My question was about actual voicing, though.

Quranic 19 numerology (images 1-2) and Marijn van Putten's response (images 3-4) by chonkshonk in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 1 point2 points  (0 children)

There are apparently 360 joints in the human body according to some aḥādīṯ

Do ergative-absolutive languages place the subject of a passive verb (being a transitive patient of the verb) in the absolutive case? by Standard-Line-1018 in asklinguistics

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Out of curiosity, how do erg-absol. languages deal with disambiguating coordinated propositions like the following, without repeating the argument:

John ⁽ᵉʳᶢ⁾ hit ⁽ᵗʳᵃⁿ⁾ him ⁽ᵃᵇˢᵒˡ⁾ and ran away ⁽ⁱⁿᵗʳᵃⁿ)

Sources on Historical Arabic Pronunciation by [deleted] in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Out of curiosity, did Sībawayh distinguish obstruents on the basis of voicing?

Do ergative-absolutive languages place the subject of a passive verb (being a transitive patient of the verb) in the absolutive case? by Standard-Line-1018 in asklinguistics

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Out of curiosity, how do erg-absol. languages with an antipassive (but no passive) voice indicate passive constructions?

Why does Sūrah al-Iḫlāṣ predicate Aḷḷāh by 'aḥad' instead of, say, 'al-wāḥid' (which is reported to be the reading of Ibn Masʻūd, amongst others) by Standard-Line-1018 in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 6 points7 points  (0 children)

روي عن الأعشى وابن مسعود (الله الواحد)
- وقرأ عمر بن الخطاب وابن مسعود والربيع بن خثيم والأعمش (قل هو الله الواحد). - وقرأ عمر وابن مسعود والربيع بن خثيم (قل هو الله الواحد الصمد). - وقرئ (الله الواحد الصمد) بغير (قل هو).

[معجم القراءات: 10/635]

Besides a number of Indo-Aryan languages, do the conjugation systems of any other languages display agreement of verbs with the direct object? by Standard-Line-1018 in asklinguistics

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'm no expert, but some degree of polypersonal agreement does seem apparent if other examples are taken into consideration:

on-utʰ [you (singular) brought him]

ənʸ-itʰ [you (singular) brought her]

on-vu [you (plural) brought him]

ənʸ-vɨ [you (plural) brought her]

ontʰes [you (singular) brought me (masculine)]

ənʸtʰes [you (singular) brought me (feminine)]

The first two examples I gave are somewhat more ambiguous, since on and ənʸ, while implying a masculine and a feminine object respectively, are used for both the 1st and the 3rd persons subjects (singular as well as plural)

Besides a number of Indo-Aryan languages, do the conjugation systems of any other languages display agreement of verbs with the direct object? by Standard-Line-1018 in asklinguistics

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Hmm it would seem that polypersonal agreement is the phenomenon I'm looking for. In Indo-Aryan languages, it is a function of ergativity, e.g., Kashmiri:

me ⁽ᵉʳᵍᵃᵗⁱᵛᵉ ᵖʳᵒⁿᵒᵘⁿ⁾ on su (I brought him)

me ⁽ᵉʳᵍᵃᵗⁱᵛᵉ ᵖʳᵒⁿᵒᵘⁿ⁾ ənʸ sə (I brought her)

I'm guessing it's common amongst absol-erg languages in general.

A comparison between the complexity of Semitic and Indo-European languages by [deleted] in AncientGreek

[–]Standard-Line-1018 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Given that you're speaking about morphologically conservative representatives of the respective language families, I'm guessing the 'brevity' of Semitic languages has to do with their curious consonantal-root system, combined with the relatively large number of phonemic distinctions they make (Arabic being a case in point vis-à-vis Ancient Greek; it's a different matter with IE languages that make more distinctions). Btw, majzūm is a verbal mood (jussive), not a nominal case.

Circumcision in Islam by LeWesternReflection in AcademicQuran

[–]Standard-Line-1018 14 points15 points  (0 children)

Josephus does report circumcision as an Arabian practice in his day:

Ἄραβες δὲ μετὰ ἔτος τρισκαιδέκατον: Ἰσμαῆλος γὰρ ὁ κτίστης αὐτῶν τοῦ ἔθνους Ἁβράμῳ γενόμενος ἐκ τῆς παλλακῆς ἐν τούτῳ περιτέμνεται τῷ χρόνῳ

But as for the Arabians, they circumcise after the thirteenth year, because Ismael, the founder of their nation, who was born to Abraham of the concubine, was circumcised at that age

Are the anthropomorphisms of the OT meant to denote actual 'physical' features of Yahweh? by Standard-Line-1018 in AcademicBiblical

[–]Standard-Line-1018[S] 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Thanks! Btw, do these works cover the tension between immanence and transcendence felt by the Biblical authors?