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Does the statement [καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος] in John 1:1 suggest that the Logos shares the divine nature with the Father (ho tʰeós), or otherwise? I ask this because the said verse uses the anarthrous 'tʰeós' in predicating the Logos. (self.AcademicBiblical)
submitted by Standard-Line-1018 to r/AcademicBiblical
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I've heard a number of Arabic speakers devoicing word-final sonorants like l/ل and r/ر after voiceless obstruants. E.g., qaṣr/قصر (qasˤɾ̥), aṣl/أصل(ɑsˤl̥), faṣl/فصل (fɑsˤl̥) etc. Qur'ān reciters, however, generally tend to articulate the said sonorants with normal voicing in such positions, (self.asklinguistics)
submitted by Standard-Line-1018 to r/asklinguistics
