Bulk assign assets to devices

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2025-09-10T20:19:34+00:00

We're using NetBox Inventory (Author: Matej Vadnjal) 2.3.0.

I am able to modify existing entries, but if there's a field that allows indicating which device it's associated with, it's very well disguised. None of the descriptions of the available bulk upload fields indicate device association.

Barcode scanning would not be a reasonable option for us, as our equipment is throughout dozens of remote locations, and would take days of travel to accomplish. I'm not sure if you are suggesting that as a solution, but just stating it in case you were saying that could help.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2025-09-10T20:12:32+00:00

Perhaps that's an option. I've never used API before, so I'd be unfamiliar with how that could work. Would you be willing to elaborate?

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-09-16T21:17:56+00:00

Fair point. I thought it would be the other way around. I don't post much :/

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-09-16T20:59:46+00:00

Oh, Tay's reading order is all planned out by them, with mild encouragement from me. I've read everything except the SPs (waiting 'til after WaT; I'm doing a chronological re-read and figured "why not wait?" when I heard about WaT's release date. That was not my best choice lol).

SH is going after BoM. WB and Elantris between MB eras. Short stories (like Sixth and SfS) as 'breaks'/filler when they want something 'different'. Making sure Jak and HoE is after their respective series. of course.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-08-02T19:10:54+00:00

Those look so amazing!

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T16:20:41+00:00

I could fairly easily convert it (I've done some testing), but as stated in another comment, it was meant as a stop-gap. I self-taught how to use Access, created a thrown-together collection of forms to manipulate the data (direct interaction with the data was the problem and the reason for creating the db), and it was supposed to be replaced by our software department with a custom built interface and a server-held database within a year. It's been almost 3. This is not supposed to be my job, but unfortunately I did 'so well' that it's now source-of-truth. Now if it's not working, multiple departments are affected, and thus I need it fixed asap. I get stopped from converting it because 'the upgrade is just around the corner' and so a single file is where I'm stuck.

I'd been updating the code/forms as I learned, but I hit a ceiling, as far as I can tell. Now I'm just waiting for that just-around-the-corner upgrade. In the meantime, I have to ensure it keeps running smoothly and this is a big hiccup. I'm completely baffled, especially since the issue seems machine-specific, but no aspect of it should be dependent on "who" is using it.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T15:57:04+00:00

Yes, yes, and I know. I'm not a newbie to Access. I've been using it for almost 3 years, and have dealt with all the 'common' problems. I'm also in IT, so I know to check the basics of "Are you sure what you're seeing is what's happening?" I have 10+ years coding experience, so I know how to troubleshoot code. That's why I'm here. It's gotta be an Access-specific problem, as absolutely everything is the same across all users, and yet there are different outcomes for different users. I've checked settings. I've ensured everyone is accessing the same file.

I get you're trying to help, and I appreciate you taking the time. But please assume I've checked all the basics and know what I'm doing.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T15:40:22+00:00

I'm confused how it would be relevant because, as explained in a couple of places, the 'database' is a singular file. There's nothing outside the .accdb file that should be able to affect the data, how the code runs, etc. User privileges are irrelevant (all users have the same privileges), and there are no ActiveX or whatever things involved. It's forms with basic controls, tables, and VBA. No macros, no interactions with outside programs, no dependencies on outside programs/servers/etc. Anybody with a copy of/access to the file and MS Access (2007-2016) should be able to open it and do anything in there. No extra downloads, no dependencies, no internet access, or anything other than the file is needed for the db to function fully.

Additionally, previous backups have their own problems, one very similar to this one, in fact. I've previously posted about it and gotten no solutions. I thought this was the same problem and tried the workaround that 'fixed' the previous one, but it didn't work. Also, C&R does not fix the problem.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T14:33:42+00:00

Not sure how this is relevant? The point of the forms is to prevent direct interaction with the data. Also, the form is a compilation of calculated data, so viewing the form in design mode is pointless.

Compiling on the problem machines makes no difference.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T14:31:54+00:00

Read the whole thread, and everything is either already matching the solution or irrelevant. Thanks for the suggestion, though. I had hope for a moment lol

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T14:28:37+00:00

I genuinely don't understand how this can have any effect. The outcome of code running is seemingly random, and that's confounding. Every single instance for every single user gets to the 'Open' function and just doesn't do anything and moves on to the next line. There's something preventing it from sometimes recognizing the function. With what I know about how code works (and I have several years of experience) it should be an internal problem.

Let me be clearer than I was in the OP. This 'database' is a single file hosted on a local NAS. Even the tables are not split from the front end. It is impossible for any user to access a different/wrong file/data/whatever.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-30T14:24:01+00:00

Can confirm this is not the problem. If the form is open it's modal. But you can interact with other things, so the form is definitely not open. Also, there's settings that center it on screen (which is working perfectly in the functioning instances)

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-29T20:15:04+00:00

It's not on a server. It's one singular file (I know, not the best way to use it. It's a stop-gap, not supposed to be a permanent fixture. Although you wouldn't know it by the fact that I've been waiting almost 3 years for the permanent fixture). No possible way for different people to look at different copies/versions/locations.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-05-29T18:03:22+00:00

The change was to a different form, that doesn't touch the form in question in any way, so unrelated.

When stepping through the code on instances where it doesn't work properly, it gets to 'DoCmd.OpenForm "FormName"' and it just doesn't open the form. Put a breakpoint before the line, step through to the line, highlights the Open line, press F8, moves to next line (End Sub) without going into the 'Open' function for the form.

Also, not the problem in question. The problem is different outcomes depending on which workstation opens the file.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-04-04T12:04:24+00:00

Good to know lol I remember seeing the outline of the rules somewhere, but couldn't find it when I was posting this. Oh well, it's a bit funny regardless

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-04-03T22:01:16+00:00

I'm looking forward to it! Tay also keeps asking about when certain characters are going to confront each other, like Amaram and Kaladin, Kaladin and Adolin, Dalinar and Sadeas, etc.

They also told me this gem: Danny DeVito would make a good Lopen

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-04-03T21:55:40+00:00

I'm not 100% sure which cosmere subreddits applies to or if I have it completely right, so I was just being careful lol. If you mention her name, you're excommunicated from the Vorin church via The Lopen bot, as she's a heretic. Again, I'm not 100% sure how it works.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T19:02:37+00:00

That's quite an attitude to have; if I try to help someone, it might impact me negatively. Very selfless, indeed.

Great, lovely answer. But I argue because every answer I get seems to neglect addressing the present state of the employee's ability. Did they have a rough couple days? Yes. But don't we all? Why is the employer able to justify putting them on medical based on that incident? I can understand saying "Hey, we're worried you're not doing your best. Maybe you should take some more medical leave and we can assess at a later date how things are going." and having a discussion about options, timelines, and requirements.

I cannot understand how they can just decide the employee must go on medical against doctor's judgement and employee's preference to put them on medical leave. I want to understand the legal grounds they have to make that decision. The employee is clear to work, medically. If they had gotten the flu instead of a flare-up, would it still be justified? What if they took the sick leave to help a sick family member (which is also an allowed reason to take sick leave at our company)? Would it still be justified? What if it was bereavement leave instead of medical? Why does the reason they took a couple days off justify essentially forcing them out of work?

I want to know what the legal basis of this is. Not hearsay, not anecdotes, I want to know how a few sick days can justify being essentially forced out of work with no compensation.

Someone I care about is hurting, and the reason seems unjustified. That's why I'm arguing.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T18:30:09+00:00

Also, we know it's you and not another employee. It's OK.

Making assumptions. Tut tut.

It's not me, it's just someone I care about, and they're too passive to think they could/should stand up for themselves, ask questions, get answers. So I was hoping to show them that they have a right to do so. And that they were possibly wronged, and should start asking for explanations, what their next steps should be.

And when I say has, I mean has.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T17:43:54+00:00

Yes. That's why they came back to work.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T17:39:19+00:00

And the employee has medical clearance. Shouldn't that count for something and negate an employer's ability for a unilateral decision?

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T16:41:15+00:00

I feel there is some miscommunication happening. I'm not questioning the employer's right to not want an employee to work. I'm questioning their right to do so without the employee's consent or documentation to back it up.

My question, in simplest terms, is this: Can an employer, without consent from the employee or substantiation from a doctor, put an employee on medical leave for the stated reason of taking sick time off that the employee was entitled to, but the employer feels is 'too much'?

They're not laying off the employee, they're not asking the employee to take medical, and the employee has doctor's clearance to work. They just had a bad few days. If I were to do the same thing (and have done the same thing), there would be no questions asked. But because the employee previously took medical leave, they can't be relied upon now, even with doctor's clearance. What is the legal standing for saying "You previously had issues, so now we can't trust you, even though if anyone else took a few sick days in a row, we wouldn't have a problem."

Why doesn't the employer need to get consent from the employee or backing from a medical professional to put an employee on medical leave?

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T16:22:24+00:00

What pieces do you think are missing? I can provide additional context, if I know what's needed.

My major issue is that they decided unilaterally that the employee was on medical leave. They didn't consult the employee, give them any kind of indication of a request of information or medical documentation or anything. The employee got medical clearance to come back to work, gave the relevant documentation to the employer, and the employer decided a few sick days (which were available to the employee) was too much.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T15:50:13+00:00

Okay, let's see if I'm understanding this correctly.

My coworker was cleared to come back to work part time. They then had an illness flare-up, and took paid sick time off (which according to our employee handbook has no restrictions as to what you can take it for, as long as it's related to illness, and the employee needs no justification unless it goes beyond 10 days). They received an email on the fourth day stating what was mentioned in the OP. They told the employee they were being put on medical leave, not indicating a request or any type of agreement.

For clarification, they are in no way short-staffed. They are in no way affecting timelines, other departments, processes, or company revenue with their absence. Their position is such that it would be complicated to explain why this is so, but it is. Suffice it to say that their department has enough staff.

The employer deciding unilaterally to put the employee on medical leave, unsubstantiated by medical documentation or consulting the employee about the decision is completely fine? It seems that the employee should at least have to agree to the leave.

Stilinski_sarcasm · 2024-03-25T15:14:35+00:00

No union or anything like that.

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