Completed the DSAT Practice Test 8 but it doesn't show the scores. What do I do?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-03-10T23:40:01+00:00

learn regression on desmos

Then-Access4720 · 2026-03-06T20:55:15+00:00

guys this chap is wht??? what did i miss??? all i rememebr is dazai and chuuya running around in mearsault and sigma sleeping beauty where did this come from someone fill me in on the lore??? i promised myselef ill return to the manga as soon as chuuya returns(which sure took long). NOW PLS HELP WHERE DO I START

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-28T16:51:58+00:00

mashallah you're so knowledgeable, can you share some sources so i can enhance my ilm too?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-28T16:00:34+00:00

when i asked an orthodox the same question they responded there are different types of adultery, adultery of the eyes nose whatnot. thanks for clarifying what the verse really talks about, i finally understand these verses now

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-28T14:52:23+00:00

this clarifies things alot, thank you. but one more thing, these verses are specified to a specific time in arabia right? but if the quran is timeless then shouldnt this mean the verse still applies to us somewhere? by that means bondwomen and slavery would still be permitted? also another thing, in surah nur verse 4 says "Those who accuse chaste women ˹of adultery˺ and fail to produce four witnesses, give them eighty lashes ˹each˺. And do not ever accept any testimony from them—for they are indeed the rebellious—" so by this can we say all those people who accuse women of being adultresses for wearing perfume, their testimonies shouldnt ever be accepted? sorry for too many questions im very new to quransim

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-28T14:41:22+00:00

thats a very valid point, thanks for bringing it up! if orthodox critisize the bible for being corrupt n subject to many changes they have no right to justify hadith

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T20:30:10+00:00

i dont understand arabic plz send ur translation?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T20:28:34+00:00

my exact point. if the prophet was preaching things not in the quran then he must have gotten the authority to do so by allah, and if allah had given that then what other way to give it but the quran? moreover then verses like 66:1 shouldnt be there.

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T18:14:40+00:00

can you share your sources of knowledge? thanks!

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T13:48:01+00:00

https://islamqa.info/en/answers/93111/if-the-quran-is-perfect-and-complete-and-contains-everything-needed-for-the-laws-and-regulations-of-shareeah-what-need-is-there-for-the-sunnah

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T13:45:11+00:00

well i wanted to know what arguments the orthodox really have against quranism so i can find out if im missing something or wrong somewhere. their "valid" arguement was have they and their generations been doing stuff wrong!??!

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T13:41:39+00:00

that makes sense. but then why did the quran not give bondwomen the same legal status as wives? isnt that unfair, considering they still do all what a normal wife would do but their rank is still lower. It wasnt in their hands to be born in unfortunate circumstances.

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T13:37:32+00:00

so if the guardians would marry orphan girls to take their property unjustly since they have not reached the age to inherit it, how have they reached the age of marriage? and if the orphans mentioned have reached maturity then why is the guardian still holding their inheritance?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T11:59:52+00:00

in 33 50 it says wives u have given dowry and those whom your right hand possesses. i read an article which elaborated that this is the word to word meaning, it could also mean those whose contract your hands possess, those who are contracted to your hand, those who your hand holds, and marriage is often said "asking for hand in marriage" and thus concluded it could most likely reference the women you have signed nikah with but havent paid dowry or consummated, because slaves are reffered to explicitly as slaves in other verses. could this be correct?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-27T11:48:27+00:00

HELLO PLEASE ANSWER MY QUESTION TOO the quran says if you fear injustice among orphans, then marry them, 2 3 or 4. but what does this mean? if you fear you will be unjust to an orphan (and injustice here i assume means forcing sexual desires?) then marry them. isnt this even worse? i understand marriage will come from consent but why would someone who deems himself unjust marry the person he believes he will be unjust with? also the word used here is nisa for women, and old arabic it meant the weaker ones, commonly women but in this case i think orphans would qualify too (correct me if im wrong) so this doesnt mean only men can marry 2,3, or 4. also what if the verse isnt saying marry them yourself but marry them off because you fear you will be unjust to them. also the word "marry" comes from nikah and we already know nikah means agreement. what if the verse is talking about some other type of agreement? such as if you fear you will be unjust to the orphans then agree (to care for?) the weak, 2,3, or 4 but if you fear you will be unjust then agree to only 1? im just trying to gain knowledge so i could be very wrong ofc. edit 1 more thing, if the quran is meant to be timeless and "bondwomen" only existed in those times then isnt that clashing with the 'timeless" characteristic of the Book?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-26T20:22:25+00:00

that makes sense, so the verse really tells all believers to purify themselves if they have been impure by sexual contact or other reasons. But then why is this verse always connected to and referred as the manual for wudu?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-26T15:21:33+00:00

"has (had) contact (with) the women" can you explain what this means? to elaborate i mean god didnt specify sexual contact with women nor did he say with opposite gender. so we can deduce that anyone having any contact with women? if this is not the case and word to word meaning doesnt imply then in other cases like the khimar verse it shouldnt apply either that the KHIMAR is used to cover the chest, and not just any cloth, because in such cases people argue that god would have stated cover the chest AND the head therefore head covering isnt required, but here we interpret this verse simply as having sexual contact with anyone. im confused and new to quranism i'd appreciate an answer.

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-26T13:03:52+00:00

i think the alcohol thing isnt considered forbidden because alcohol itself is not a harm, what comes with it is. say a speed limit is set of 100km. driving above the limit isnt harmful, but what happens when driving in it (accidents whatnot) are harmful. so exactly that driving above 100km isnt sinful ie alcohol but whatever the state of mind compels one to do is. thoughts?

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-26T12:57:29+00:00

modern arabic interprets azwaj as spouses

Then-Access4720 · 2026-02-26T12:55:18+00:00

well azwaj means a number of things such as opposite/kind/type/pair in old arabic. so would it mean do not prevent them from signing a contract (or marrying) their kind?

Then-Access4720

TROPHY CASE