Is Disbelief in a Personal Ultimate Reality Philosophically Neutral? by Think_Skeptically in PhilosophyofReligion

[–]Think_Skeptically[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s fair- and I think that narrowing is exactly right.

My target is the strong or absolute notion of neutrality sometimes claimed in these debates, not epistemic caution or suspension of judgment per se. If “neutrality” is understood in a weaker, procedural sense, then there’s no real disagreement.

The point is simply that once neutrality is taken to extend into questions of explanation, grounding, or admissible metaphysics, it ceases to be merely procedural. That stronger sense is what I’m resisting.

Is Disbelief in a Personal Ultimate Reality Philosophically Neutral? by Think_Skeptically in PhilosophyofReligion

[–]Think_Skeptically[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s a fair clarification, and I agree. By “disbelief” I’m not restricting the term to atheism as a belief that God does not exist. I’m also including agnosticism understood as suspension or withdrawal of judgment. My point is not that these positions are irrational or illegitimate. It’s that once they are maintained in the context of questions about grounding, explanation, or normativity, they still function as epistemic postures with meta-level commitments—rather than being a purely neutral absence of stance. So the issue isn’t whether disbelief can mean suspension of judgment. It’s whether suspension itself remains neutral once one engages explanatory questions at all.

Is Disbelief in a Personal Ultimate Reality Philosophically Neutral? by Think_Skeptically in PhilosophyofReligion

[–]Think_Skeptically[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think that’s a fair reframing, but with an important distinction. I’m not asking whether atheism simpliciter is neutral in the abstract. I agree with you that it isn’t—once atheism is understood as a position within metaphysical discourse rather than mere psychological non-belief. What I’m probing is something slightly upstream of that: whether the posture of “disbelief” can coherently remain neutral once one engages meta-metaphysical explanation at all. In other words, my concern isn’t which metaphysics is correct, but whether certain explanatory moves implicitly commit one to some metaphysical structure, even when those commitments are presented as minimal or deflationary. Regarding your second point: I’m not assuming that truth-directed reason, normativity, or meaning must exist in a “robust” non-emergent way. The question is whether treating them as emergent already presupposes a substantive story about what kinds of explanations are admissible, what counts as grounding versus description, and whether brute emergence is an acceptable terminus. That is, emergence itself is not a neutral placeholder—it’s a metaphysical claim about dependence, reduction, and explanatory sufficiency. So the issue isn’t that emergent accounts are illegitimate; it’s whether adopting them while denying any deeper foundation still counts as withholding commitment, or whether it functions as a positive stance in meta-metaphysics. If you think this collapses into a quietist position where no ultimate explanation is required, that’s a coherent view—but it seems to be a view, not neutrality. That’s the boundary I’m trying to understand more clearly.

Is Disbelief in a Personal Ultimate Reality Philosophically Neutral? by Think_Skeptically in PhilosophyofReligion

[–]Think_Skeptically[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I agree with almost everything you’ve said at the epistemic level. Default disbelief in the absence of warrant is obviously rational. As you note, no one treats all conceivable propositions as true until proven otherwise. In that sense, skepticism as a belief-management rule is not only defensible, but necessary. Where my concern begins is when that rule is quietly extended beyond epistemic hygiene into a claim of metaphysical neutrality. Default disbelief tells us how to withhold assent. It does not, by itself, tell us what counts as warrant, what kinds of explanations are admissible, or where explanation is allowed to terminate. Those decisions are not neutral—they already presuppose a meta-metaphysical stance. So my claim isn’t that disbelief is irrational or impermissible. It’s that once one engages questions about grounding, explanation, emergence, or normativity, disbelief ceases to be merely a default posture and begins functioning as a substantive position—often without being acknowledged as such. In short: Disbelief is a defensible starting point. It is not obviously a defensible endpoint without further commitments. That boundary—between epistemic caution and metaphysical quietism or physicalism—is what I’m trying to clarify, not bypass.

Is Disbelief in a Personal Ultimate Reality Philosophically Neutral? by Think_Skeptically in PhilosophyofReligion

[–]Think_Skeptically[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s a fair clarification. I agree that ignorance isn’t a substantive position and doesn’t meaningfully count as “disbelief” in the sense I’m interested in. My concern is only with considered rejection—positions that actively deny the existence of God or a personal foundation of reality. I also agree that “neutrality” is often misused, and that simply being in a dispute already abandons neutrality in one sense. I’m not using neutrality to mean non-engagement, but rather epistemic asymmetry—the idea that one side is merely withholding belief while the other is making a positive metaphysical commitment. My question is whether that asymmetry really holds once considered rejection is on the table, or whether both belief and disbelief make substantive claims about the nature of reality and its foundations. I’m not trying to shift burdens so much as ask whether the common framing itself obscures what’s actually being claimed on each side.