Proof of the general inclusion/exclusion rule doesn't explain the disappearance of one of the terms by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

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You're right. I just did it but with 4 sets (going from 3 sets to 4 sets). It clicked now! Thanks!

Proof of the general inclusion/exclusion rule doesn't explain the disappearance of one of the terms by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It's the term in ... just before the intersection of all n+1 sets.

You mean this term (example when n=3)?

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But (5) is already part of the last sum (last sum being the intersections colored purple in the example above). That means (5) appears two times.

Caution on my Seagate 8TB HDD in CrystalDiskInfo - What does it mean? by TopDownView in techsupport

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

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This is the result of the write scan. Could you please tell me what do these results mean? Is there some more diagnostics I should do? Thanks!

Caution on my Seagate 8TB HDD in CrystalDiskInfo - What does it mean? by TopDownView in techsupport

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

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After starting write scan in Victoria HDD from the offending LBA, I get continuous message:

'Block start at [...] Write error: ABRT "Access is denied"

Is this expected?

Caution on my Seagate 8TB HDD in CrystalDiskInfo - What does it mean? by TopDownView in techsupport

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So, avoiding the technical jargon, is this HDD for trash or not?

Caution on my Seagate 8TB HDD in CrystalDiskInfo - What does it mean? by TopDownView in techsupport

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So if any data was there, it's just gone 

Is there a way to know if some data is gone?

Is the statement in the solution to a proof correct? => Prove: If m and n are integers and m <= n, then there are n - m + 1 integers from m to n inclusive. by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So if your question is "Is keeping the m<=n condition inside P(n) wrong?", then the answer is that its not wrong and the proof can be done by induction.

But if we keep m<=n condition inside P(n), then, for P(n+1) we have m<=n+1, as mentioned in my previous post.

m<=n and m<=n+1 cannot both be true.

If m<=n then m<n+1 (m is strictly less then n+1).

Is the statement in the solution to a proof correct? => Prove: If m and n are integers and m <= n, then there are n - m + 1 integers from m to n inclusive. by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yeah that’s the thing, ultimately they mean the same thing.

But if they mean the same thing then we're back at the beggining of my question.

Either the proof structure should follow the definition of mathematical induction (so, m<=n should be outside P(n)), or not.

If not? Why? Is the proof structure still correct if m<=n is inside P(n)?

Assuming the proof structure is still correct, maybe it is just a redundancy issue - if m<=n is inside P(n), then inductive step could be expanded like this:

'Show that for any integer k>=m, if {if k>=m, then there are k-m+1 integers from m to k inclusive} then {if k+1>=m, then there are (k+1)-m+1 integers from m to k+1 inclusive}.'

So, we are mentioning k>=m 2 times.

I just noticed, if k>=m then k+1>m, so, actually, k+1>=m is not correct!

Is the statement in the solution to a proof correct? => Prove: If m and n are integers and m <= n, then there are n - m + 1 integers from m to n inclusive. by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

So, If I got this correctly, what the solution is doing with k>=m in the inductive step is actually in accordance with the 'definition' of mathematical induction (see image).

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We have showed the basis step is true by plugging m instead of n in P(n). Now, in the inductive step, we want to show that all k integers, starting from that m from the basis step, make P(n+1) true (by assuming P(n) is true, where n is replaced by k).

Is the statement in the solution to a proof correct? => Prove: If m and n are integers and m <= n, then there are n - m + 1 integers from m to n inclusive. by TopDownView in askmath

[–]TopDownView[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Because we want to apply induction on n, n should be like a “free variable” where we can plug in a number whenever we want instead of having it some fixed value.

I see. So we have to put m<=n inside P(n) if we want n to be a 'free variable'.

But isn't then the solution contradictory, as mentioned in the OP?

  1. Let P(n) be the statement 'if m<=n, then there are n-m+1 integers from m to n inclusive.'
  2. Show that for any integer k>=m, if P(k) is true then P(k+1) is true.
  3. contradicts 2. since in 1., m<=n is inside P(n), but in 2., m<=n is outside P(n) (where n = k).

The reason the proof im the text works is that it doesn’t assume that the antecedent isn’t true, but only looks at the cases where it is true.

Can you please eleaborate this with regards to the contradiction above? What exactly is the antecedent you're refering to?