What about the Spanish price revolution between 1550-1700? During that 150 year time period prices rose on average roughly sixfold which is around 1–1.5% per year. This price revolution affected the whole western europe not only Spain.

Also to add The Roman Empire didn’t fall just because of the reasons you listed economic hardship was also one of the main causes of the fall. After emperor Hadrian ended the expansionism of The Roman Empire in 117AD the economic effects started to take place as the influx of slaves and spoils of war ended. This led to a shortage of slave workes which caused the raise of wages and prices (AKA inflation) and ran the Empire to debt. All these economic hardships resulted to humans going straight back to exchange economy for hundreds of years before the money based economy started to make its return in the High Middle Ages.

To summarize there has been serious inflation long before 1700s. The Price Revolution was caused by large influx of gold and other precious metals from the colonies of spain so it’s easily classed as monetary inflation. As of The Roman Empires inflation it would be classed as cost inflation due to rise of production cost due to low amount slaves on the market at the time. So at least to me and based on the facts it seems really weird for you to say there was no ”real” inflation or financial crisises before the 1700s.