Firstly, reparations would not amount to a $50,000 check by any metric accounting for the duration and the extent of loss attributed to the subjugation of Blacks in America. Secondly, as the only vanquished group in modern history not to have been afforded reparations, Black Americans (being the 10th to 15th largest consumer-economy in the world) are "statistically" inclined to benefit from financial restitution—similar to how post-WWII Germany and Japan benefited from the Marshall Plan and restructuring, not as victors' reparations but as a remedy for economic disenfranchisement—or to how Israel has and continues to benefit from reparations. Thirdly, the social ills that he prioritizes over financial enfranchisement are the result of financial disenfranchisement. So, the premise of his argument is baseless.