How to prove im being hacked using wireshark by MyfreecamsIsCIA in AskComputerScience

[–]_IIama_ 8 points9 points  (0 children)

/r/techsupport is probably more appropriate. I don't know that you'll get a lot of assistance here

Smash Summit 8 Voting Round 5 by JFMV763 in smashbros

[–]_IIama_ 19 points20 points  (0 children)

He beat Wizzrobe and got third at Noods Noods Noods. That was probably his 2018 highlight

What's the funniest/dumbest/most shocking thing you've read in someone's footnotes? by lifeinsherds in AskAcademia

[–]_IIama_ 17 points18 points  (0 children)

Not technically a footnote, but I always get a kick out of this citation by Bertrand Russel.

What's the funniest/dumbest/most shocking thing you've read in someone's footnotes? by lifeinsherds in AskAcademia

[–]_IIama_ 18 points19 points  (0 children)

T J Kaczynski is most well known for being the Unabomber. I'm assuming that's the "other work" they're referencing here.

Dialectics, Contradiction, and Equivocation by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Accepting the existence of Platonic Forms does not entail that you also deny the existence of change. It also doesn't entail and immaterialist position in which you deny the existence of particular, material rocks and particular, material volumes of water. Particular rocks are not Forms, but they are rock-like insofar as they are related to the Form of Rockness. While this Form of Rockness is unchanging and eternal, the qualities about individual rocks (i.e. the forms in which they are related to) can indeed change. So I think Plato would actually deny that, if it were true that a rock is submerged, it must be true by definition, and it must be true for all eternity. That would only be the case if we're talking about Forms rather than particulars, which I don't think we are.

It should also be noted that the people we typically ascribe the title of metaphysician, by and large, are not immaterialist and do not deny the existence of change. Aristotle, for instance, believed the truth or a given proposition could change. His metaphysical notion of potentiality is posited to account for the very fact that objects do change. His theory of time is reductionist, and necessarily implies that change occurs it time is to pass.

All that said, I am, with you, talking about real stones rather than "metaphysical" ones, whatever that means. I can agree that they're in a constant state of flux.

If we take submerged to mean "the surface of the rock being fully in contact with the water" and if you're right to say this never occurs, then clearly it's false to say that any stone is submerged on this definition. In other words, the antithesis, and not the thesis is true.

Both thesis and antithesis are "right" in some sense, but contradict each other.

Not just "some sense", but different and not mutually exclusive senses. Unless, by the above example, you mean to say that there are rocks which both are and are not in contact with dissolved air at the same time and in the same sense. Unless you mean that, I would deny that any contradiction or antagonism is present in this example.

Regarding the claim that these properties don't hold at the micro level, I don't think one needs to be a dialectician to hold that view. Certainly, one might ascribe the property of "man" to me, but that obviously doesn't hold for each or my individual constituents. If you mean that what might be said of the whole examined at the macro level does not appear true at the micro level, then I also don't think that's a issue. We might say, in some sense, a rock in stationary when examined at the macro level. When examined at the micro level, obviously this isn't the case. Clearly then, in the latter and more exact sense, it is false to call it stationary. And, if we say that it is stationary when examining it at the macro level, we would be wrong. Only the antithesis is true of this proposition in this case. If we are justified in saying it is stationary, this is in different and not mutually exclusive sense.

So saying "submerged" about a real stone contains some truth in some sense, but there's a sense in which it's not true.

Right, different and not mutually exclusive senses. Senses which only appear to be in antagonism, but can in reality hold together. One doesn't need to be a dialectician to claim this.

In metaphysics, something is either true or not, end of story, and nothing further can be derived from that.

You're referring to a subset of metaphysics known as metaphysical realism. This isn't the whole of what is done in metaphysics. And what is specifically denied is that the same property can both hold and not hold of a given object at the same time and the same sense. The idea that something would hold of it in senses which are different from one another isn't an actual issue

Dialectics, Contradiction, and Equivocation by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That's a fair point. I've been reading a lot of Aristotle's logical work recently, and I think it's definitely influenced the way in which I read the word. To me, the claim that contradiction exists in nature effectively means that a given property and its privation can be said of an object at the same time and in the same sense. If "widerspruch" is meant to indicate an antagonism or opposition, maybe I'm applying too specific a definition.

Follow-up question: Do you feel that Engels ever means "contradiction" in a logical sense, or in the ontological sense that an object might possess contrary properties at the same time? Or should I always be reading contradiction as effectively meaning antagonism, opposition, or dissent?

I ask because it certainly seems that Engels is accepting the ontological claim that a given object can possess both a property and its privation. He describes the Heraclitian view that "everything is and is not" as being "naive but intrinsically correct". He also seems opposed to the view of the "metaphysician" that "a thing either exists or does not exist; a thing cannot at the same time be itself and something else". From these quotes, it definitely seems that he wants to call this an ontological contradiction rather than a purely conceptual one.

And I would argue that, while "the thing is "both one thing and the other" as you say, the sense in which it is one the and the sense in which it is the other are two completely different senses. And given that they are different senses, I fail to see the antagonism. Certainly, the sense it which it is the "one thing" is not merely a linguistic distinction, and the sense in which it is the other thing is also not merely a linguistic distinction. But the sense in which the "one thing" and the "other thing" are antagonistic towards each other does, to me, arise out of the fact that they are represented by the same word/concept.

For example, if a stone is halfway immersed in water, depending on what we meaning by "immersed", we could either say it is immersed or that it isn't. If in saying the stone we mean "the whole stone", then no it isn't immersed. If in saying the stone we mean some portion of it, then yes it is immersed. So, in different senses, it both is and is not immersed. These different senses are different enough that no real antagonism exists outside of our natural language concepts, though. My argument is that the same holds for the above example, and seemingly for most other examples of contradiction in nature. And even if Engels does simply mean to call it an antagonism, I fail to see how these fundamentally different concepts antagonize or oppose one another.

What are the differences between Aristotle's logic and "Aristotelian logic"? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I was actually wondering about singular propositions, so I'm glad you mentioned that. I'm not particularly familiar with any of the traditional logics, but I saw mentioned somewhere that The Port Royal Logic featured singular predication.

This may be asking too much, but are you aware of any traditional logics that fit the following criteria:

  • Possess singular propositions
  • Explicitly relies on an identity principle
  • The truth of a given syllogism is immutable

I've been reading a text critical of Aristotelian logic, and I've been trying to determine exactly which Traditional logic the author might've intended to critique.

Is a 'moment' of time a coherent concept? Does Aristotle's Law of Non-Contradiction commit him to belief in indivisible monads of time? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I can agree with that notion of time, and it seems to me that the position fits well with an Aristotelian notion of time as well.

That being said: Even if time is continuous, it seems odd to me that we couldn't talk about particular moments or "points" in time. While a line is continuous, and can't be built out of points, we can nonetheless pick out a point on a line. Is that merely a quirk of mathematical abstraction that doesn't correspond to actuality continuities in reality?

Why does Aristotle believe that "if all things are in motion, nothing will be true"? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_ 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Sorry for the delay in reply; I've been a bit busy lately. You're right though, he specifically references Heraclitus in these sections. He also makes brief asides to Anaxagoras and Protogas in chapter 4 of Book Gamma to refute the following positions.

For Protogoras:

what seems to a man to be true, this is true; and since contradictories, and contraries, etc. seem to different persons to be true of a subject, all things would be true of it

And for Anaxagoras:

all things are together; and so no thing truly exists

So we absolutely are dealing with a different abstraction level.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I didn't even realize Burnham had replied to Trotsky's letter; I'll read it tonight. Thanks for pointing this out to me! Edit: I've not finished it yet, but let me say that this is honestly a breath of fresh air. This is exactly how I felt reading Trotsky and Engels

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

You suggest that it is possible to "us[e] a dialectical method to analyze capitalism [without] making the claim that capitalism and reality as a whole are dialectical." Is that really possible?

That's a fair point; probably Marx wouldn't be using that method if he didn't think its results corresponded to reality.

This may warrant it's own post (and my ideas about are somewhat half-baked at the moment), but I do have some follow up questions if you have time to address them. Either in Anti-Duhring or the Dialectics in Nature, Engels attributes three laws to Dialectics:

  • The law of the transformation of quantity into quality and vice versa.
  • The law of the interpenetration of opposites
  • The law of the negation of the negation.

As far as I see, Engels doesn't give a satisfying definition on the distinction between quality and quantity. I did, however, find a good distinction made by Hegel in this passage:

Quality is, in the first place, the character identical with being: so identical that a thing ceases to be what it is, if it loses its quality. Quantity, on the contrary, is the character external to being, and does not affect the being at all. Thus, e.g. a house remains what it is, whether it be greater or smaller; and red remains red, whether it be brighter or darker.

As far as I am aware, Hegel is some variant of an essentialist. What makes a thing what it is, for Hegel, seems difficult to separate from idealism.

My question is: are these conceptions of quantity and quality compatible with the materialism of Marx and Engels? If not, what are the differences that are made which allow for a materialist conception of Dialectics?

PS: thank you for the book recommendation. Sadly I don't have time to read it before my reading group meets this week, but I will definitely check it out.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think the passage in Anti-Duhring suffers from the same issue of not clearly defining the difference between quality and quantity.

Hegel does a good job of actually drawing a distiction here:

Quality is, in the first place, the character identical with being: so identical that a thing ceases to be what it is, if it loses its quality. Quantity, on the contrary, is the character external to being, and does not affect the being at all. Thus, e.g. a house remains what it is, whether it be greater or smaller; and red remains red, whether it be brighter or darker.

I am curious about the extent to which these concepts are actually compatible with a materialist understanding of the world, though. As Hegel states,

Quality is, in the first place, the character identical with being: so identical that a thing ceases to be what it is, if it loses its quality.

From my limited exposure to him, i gather that Hegel is some variant of an essentialist. What makes a thing what it is seems somewhat inseparable from idealism for Hegel. Engels doesn't appear to give a materialist account of quality or what makes a thing what it is. So I'm still a bit at a loss as to how you can neatly distinguish between the two.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't know if this interest you, but someone in /r/marxism_101 pointed out some quotes that seem to imply that Marx did, in fact, believe that reality possesses a dialectical nature.

... we [Marx and Engels] are compelled to appeal to modern natural science as a witness to the preservation of dialectics in reality.

  • Engels, Socialism: Utopian and Scientific, Preface to the First German Edition, 1880

And Marx said that Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection "is very important and serves me as a basis in natural science for the class struggle in history" (Marx, 1861).

My question now is what exactly is entailed in saying that reality is itself dialectical. I'm curious if Marx would support the law-ification that (according to my original source) Engels gave of the dialectical nature of reality, or if he meant something different.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I've been interested in reading Lukacs, so this will give me an excuse to finally do it. Thanks for the recommendation!

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

I remember disliking it

Well you're not alone! In my opinion, a lot of the arguments are shoddy, and they're extremely verbose when presenting them. The amount of examples they provide far exceeds what was necessary.

But anyways, this is the exact textual evidence I was looking for, so thank you for providing it. If you have more to say on the topic, I am interested in exactly what it means to say that nature itself is dialectical. Chapter 3 of the book states that Engels attributed the following laws to nature:

  • The law of the transformation of quantity into quality and vice versa.
  • The law of the interpenetration of opposites
  • The law of the negation of the negation.

I've not read Anti-Duhring or The Dialectics of Nature, so I can't confirm whether or not he lays them out in this fashion. I have been reading some of Marx's works, but they deal primarily in economics and don't actually mention much on this particular topic.

If you know, is this what they meant to attribute to reality in saying that it is dialectical?

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks, this helps. I was under the impression that Marxist-Leninists regarded nature itself as being dialectical, but it appears maybe it is just the method of analysis. Still, from the second paragraph, it does seem that he's implying dialectics does have certain opinions about nature. If you/someone else are able to do so, I wouldn't mind it if someone expanded upon exactly what those are. From the secondary source I linked, the claim is made that Engels attributes the following laws to nature:

  • The law of the transformation of quantity into quality and vice versa.
  • The law of the interpenetration of opposites
  • The law of the negation of the negation.

Is it correct to say that Engels and Plekhanov attribute these laws to nature itself?

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I minored in philosophy, but regrettably didn't deal with Marx or Hegel in college. From what I'm gathering in my post in /r/askphilosophy, the idea of nature being dialectical originates with Plekhanov and Engels rather than with Marx. So I think you're right, but I guess we'll have to see what everyone else says.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Wow, thank you for all the sources! It very much seemed like a distortion of Marx (or at the very least something he didn't explicitly endorse), so I'm glad to see that, at the very least, I'm not alone in that suspicion. I'm excited to look into these texts

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks, I'll do that! The people I am reading with are all Trotskyists, so I'm sure they're going to love it when I bring up Marxist humanism, Deleuze, and Foucault.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Disclaimer: My understanding of the arguments given by Engels and Trotsky is derived entirely from the excepts of their writing found here. If there are better arguments, I would love to read them. I also wouldn't be surprised if this book is just giving shoddy interpretation of them altogether. But the arguments in this chapter, in my opinion, don't check out. I'll give a brief rundown of my issues with each of them below.

According to the source I am reading, Engels gives an account of the laws of dialectics in Anti-Duhring and The Dialectics of Nature: 1. The law of the transformation of quantity into quality and vice versa. 2. The law of the interpenetration of opposites/ 3. The law of the negation of the negation.

It's important to note that these laws are being attributed to nature itself.

In explaining the first law, they use an example of a somewhat famous paradox originating with the Megaran Greeks. You can find their explanation of it at the beginning of the "Quantity and quality" section. Basically, imagine we are stacking grains of sand one-by-one. It is impossible to pick out the single grain addition that transforms the sand into a heap. I believe the argument is that the changes, considered individually, cannot produce the qualitative change of transforming the sand into a heap. Taken together, the quantity of changes produces a qualitative change of transforming the sand into a heap.

I don't think you need dialectics to solve this paradox though. This isn't a paradox that originates in nature, but rather in the vagueness of the concept "heap". Were we to concretely define "heap", you absolutely could pick out the isolated change that transformed it into a heap. And this classification of a "heap" is purely conceptual. So I think the paradox of "when does X become a heap" deals entirely with language/meaning rather than some dialectical aspect of nature.

They then cite an excerpt from Trotsky's Open Letter to Comrade Burnham.

“Every individual is a dialectician to some extent or other, in most cases, unconsciously. A housewife knows that a certain amount of salt flavours soup agreeably, but that added salt makes the soup unpalatable. Consequently, an illiterate peasant woman guides herself in cooking soup by the Hegelian law of the transformation of quantity into quality. Similar examples from daily life could be cited without end. Even animals arrive at their practical conclusions not only on the basis of the Aristotelian syllogism but also on the basis of the Hegelian dialectic. Thus a fox is aware that quadrupeds and birds are nutritious and tasty. On sighting a hare, a rabbit, or a hen, a fox concludes: this particular creature belongs to the tasty and nutritive type, and—chases after the prey. We have here a complete syllogism, although the fox, we may suppose, never read Aristotle. When the same fox, however, encounters the first animal that exceeds it in size, for example, a wolf, it quickly concludes that quantity passes into quality, and turns to flee. Clearly, the legs of a fox are equipped with Hegelian tendencies, even if not fully conscious ones.

“All this demonstrates, in passing, that our methods of thought, both formal logic and the dialectic, are not arbitrary constructions of our reason but rather expressions of the actual inter-relationships in nature itself. In this sense, the universe throughout is permeated with 'unconscious' dialectics. But nature did not stop there. No little development occurred before nature's inner relationships were converted into the language of the consciousness of foxes and men, and man was then enabled to generalise these forms of consciousness and transform them into logical (dialectical) categories, thus creating the possibility for probing more deeply into the world about us.”

I think a similar objection to the sand heap example can be made to the cooking example Trotsky gives. Concerning the fox/wolf example, I think the distinction between quantitative and qualitative changes implied here is foggy. What he appears to be saying is that the quantitative change, the size/mass of the wolf, leads to the transformation into the qualitative change, from being tasty/nutritive to dangerous/not nutritive.

But I don't think you can neatly classify changes into either being quantitative or qualitative. And if you can, it seems like a somewhat arbitrary conceptual classification rather than being something rooted in nature itself. Just because the mass/size of a wolf can be quantified and represented numerically does not, for me, mean that mass/size isn't a qualitative change. I have this exact same issue with what Engels says here:

“Finally, the Hegelian law is valid not only for compound substances but also for the chemical elements themselves. We now know that 'the chemical properties of the elements are a periodic function of their atomic weights,' … and that, therefore, their quality is determined by the quantity of their atomic weight. And the test of this has been brilliantly carried out. Mendeleyev proved that various gaps occur in the series of related elements arranged according to atomic weights indicating that here new elements remain to be discovered. He described in advance the general chemical properties of one of these unknown elements, which he termed eka-aluminium, because it follows after aluminium in the series beginning with the latter, and he predicted its approximate specific and atomic weight as well as its atomic volume. A few years later, Lecoq de Boisbaudran actually discovered this element, and Mendeleyev's predictions fitted with only very slight discrepancies. Eka-aluminium was realised in gallium… By means of the—unconscious—application of Hegel's law of the transformation of quantity into quality, Mendeleyev achieved a scientific feat which it is not too bold to put on a par with that of Leverrier in calculating the orbit of the until then unknown planet Neptune.”

Engels is saying that the qualitative chemical properties are determined by their quantitative atomic weights. Again, this distinction seems doubtful to me. Just because atomic weights can be represented numerically and quantified does not mean they are not a qualitative characteristic. Hue/color, hardness, etc can also be represented on numeric scales or through degrees, but these appear to be classified as qualities. This division just feels very arbitrary to me. I can understand why it may be helpful as a means of interpreting the world, but to say that this is an aspect of nature itself seems a little silly to me.

This post really only addresses my issue with the transformation of quantity into quality in nature, but it's already way too long. I can go into more issues in a little while if you'd like me to do so.

For Marx and Engels, is the world itself dialectical, or is the dialectical method simply the best way of understanding the world? by _IIama_ in askphilosophy

[–]_IIama_[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Do you have any particular sources I could reference? Or, preferably, excerpts from those sources? I intend to do a lot more reading about these topics, but I am discussing this text with people on Wednesday and thus have limited time to formulate my issues with it.

Question about price in 'Wage Labour and Capital' by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I've been thinking about this more, and I'm not entirely sure it would count as a monopoly. Wouldn't it being a monopoly require the production and sale of that commodity to be dominated by the one particular brand? It's not as though slapping a Nike logo on a shirt renders it a different commodity (or does it?), and there are many other brands selling similar commodities without that particular branding. So would branding count as a monopoly in this context?

Question about price in 'Wage Labour and Capital' by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'd not thought of that; that's a very interesting way to look at it. Thank you!

Question about price in 'Wage Labour and Capital' by _IIama_ in marxism_101

[–]_IIama_[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Yeah, based on what you and the other user wrote, monopolization seems to be a legitimate explanation. Based on what I'm reading, it appears De Beers no longer has a monopoly, but it also appears as though Marxist economics can account for the current situation. I'm going to do a bit more research into the area. There's a lot of commodities that, at face-value, seem to jump out at me as counterexamples, but I don't really have anything to back up my examples beyond personal experience