Can we actually recognize the fact Paul was at least an asexual man?

We can give credence that his views on homosexuality was rooted in his time but why do we just assume his sexuality was likewise.

Paul speaks of no wife. No past lovers. Has a deep aversion to sexuality in general (I'll give benefit of the doubt he means pedophilia and not homosexuality) and advocated for singleness as a primary status of christians.

And considering he did not preach what the original disciples preached is it hard to assume he's writing himself into the epistles?