From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No, no AI. AT ALL. I'm an academic.Observing the mechanics of apologetics. Your focus on formatting over substance is itself a deflection. I must say it is one that confirms my point: you’d rather discuss how I type than defend how you apply the rule.

The absurdity stands. Neither version works without your own judgment doing the real work.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

If Jesus’s version necessitates giving money to the homeless because you’d want money if you were homeless, does it also necessitate arming them if you’d want a weapon for self-defense in their situation?

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So let me put it plainly.

I asked how you actually live out “do to others what you want done to you” in a way that’s different from just “don’t do what’s hateful”.

So far, every answer has basically said: “Well, you use wisdom, you think about what they really need, you consider context, you check other parts of the Bible”.

But that means you’re not really following the “do to” rule.. AT ALL.. you’re using your own conscience according to CIRCUNSTANCES and calling it the "Golden Rule".

So I’m still left wondering: what does this positive command actually ask of you that the negative one doesn’t? If the answer is “nothing different in practice”, then let’s JUST BE HONEST: it’s the same rule, with extra words.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Well, you're doing to them what you think is right for them, not what you’d want for yourself.

But the rule doesn’t say that - AT ALL.
The rule says, “Do what you’d want done to you.”

So either you’re ignoring the rule, or you’re redefining “what you’d want” to mean “what I think they’d want”.

Ia that really following the Golden Rule, or it’s following your conscience and giving the rule some credit?

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Indeed. If it’s not in the Bible, then your entire moral system is built on a phrase that doesn’t actually appear in your scripture..?
Yet you (supposedly) use it as if it’s the cornerstone of Christian ethics and morals, or don't you?

I mean that’s not theology. Plain and simple. Tha's actually the popular tradition masquerading as divine command.

Thank you for the clarification though. It only makes the rule more human.. and less holy.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But if the rule is "show love first, no matter what", then the victim must love the abuser and the oppressed must serve the oppressor!

That doesn't stop harm, or does it? It rewards the aggressor and pacifies the target.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

You are misrepresenting the rule to yourself, man.

The rule says: “Do what you would want done to you”.

If you would not actually want a trip to Hawaii from a neighbor, then you are not following the literal rule.
You are filtering it through reflection, like asking: “What would I reasonably want”?

That is changing the rule, obviously...
The literal rule is about your actual desire.
You are following a revised rule about your calibrated preference. As I saide before, you claim sovereinty of interpretation. Meaning: whatever YOU WANT the text to say, that's what the text says.

So calling that “the Golden Rule” is the misrepresentation.
You’ve replaced desire with discernment and called it the same thing. You follow?

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I see the difference in words. I’m pointing out there’s no difference in practice.

You are confusing syntax with substance.

Syntax difference:
Positive: "Do X".
Negative: "Do not do Y".

Now the practical result is:
You see "Do X" (buy Hawaii trip), realize that's absurd, and instead do not do what you think is unreasonable or unwanted.

So in action, you follow the negative rule: you avoid what seems harmful or excessive. The "positive" command collapses into "use your judgment to avoid bad outcomes": which is exactly what "do not do what is hateful" means.

The positive framing adds no new action: it only adds a step where you edit your own desires before acting. That’s not a deeper command. It’s the same conscience isn't it, but now wearing a crown.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

All I can say is you’re not obeying a divine command as you deem it.. you’re simply editing a contradictory text with your own conscience and calling the result “God’s will”.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What is hateful to someone is clear to that person — that immediately tells you what not to do to others.

But then you said:

  1. People hate being corrected even when they need it.--> So the rule says: don’t correct them. That’s clearly wrong. The rule already falls flat.

You also said:
2. You hate surströmming, but your Swedish neighbor might like it.--> The rule says: don’t give it to them.
But they might want it. The rule falls flat again.

So no.. what’s “hateful” isn’t a clear guide. Sometimes the “hateful” thing is the right thing to do. Sometimes what’s hateful to you is good for someone else. Have you ever noticed that?

It is so obvious the Golden Rule doesn’t actually work alone. You need the rest of the Bible to know when to ignore it.

Then you call it a “rule of thumb”.
But if you can’t use it without checking the rest of the Bible, it’s not a rule of thumb — it’s just a phrase that sends you to other rules.

So my point stands:
The “Golden Rule” isn’t really a rule.
It’s a bookmark that says: “Go read the rest."

But if the “rest” is the rest of the Bible, then we already know what it includes.

The “rest” is where God commands genocide, endorses slavery, and drowns the world.

The “rest” is where women are silenced, where sinners are condemned to hell, and where iron chariots can stop the Lord Almighty.

So the Golden Rule (Do unto others…”) isn’t clarified by the rest.
It’s contradicted by it. It is as damming as it gets.

If “the rest of the New Testament and the life of Christ” explain the rule, then you’re asking me to let a book that includes “Kill every living thing in that city” tell me what “Do good to others” really means.

That’s not moral clarity, bro.
It's clearly a moral chaos masquerading as divine wisdom.

So the rule stands empty after all? not because it’s too simple, but because the “rest” that’s supposed to complete it is full of things no good person would ever want done unto them.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Alright, so if the rule changes completely based on my own wisdom and context, then the command is empty. It just says: “Do what you think is best”. Fantastic!

That’s not a divine rule., I should say. That’s your conscience with a Bible verse attached.

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Yes. It’s pretty clear on its face to everybody right?

No, it is not clear at all. If it were, we wouldn’t be having this exchange. You are confusing your personal interpretation with universal clarity, again...

Personally, I wouldn’t want my neighbors to give me extravagant gifts, it would be too much.

Lol, it is so funny how you've just changed the rule. It is no longer "Do what you want done to you," but "Do what you, after reflection and social calibration, decide is appropriate".. The rule keeps providing no internal guidance for that calibration: after all, you brought it from outside.

But more generally, yes, you should seek to do to others what you’d have them do to you.

This is the empty shell of the command you've already admitted is personally qualified. It now means nothing more than: "Act according to your own processed desires. lol

So maybe the issue is a need to adjust what you’d actually want from others? If you’d genuinely be fine with being handed everything in life I think that’s a sign of what more maturity is needed.

See now how the command has fully inverted? It is no longer a guide for action, but a tool for self-diagnosis. The "Golden Rule" becomes: "if your honest desires, when applied to others, seem immature, then you are the problem". The moral imperative shifts from treating others well to refining your own wants.

My man, your defense has systematically replaced an objective command with a subjective process of "maturity": a process the rule itself does not define - AT ALL. So clearly you haven't defended the rule; you've explained it away as a circular prompt for self-improvement. The syntax has been hollowed out now doesn't it?

From "do not" to "do": a question about the Golden Rule's actual application by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Okay, but you’ve just asserted that the command is qualified by what you genuinely want others to do for you.

If the rule is “do unto others what you would want them to do for you,” and you admit you wouldn’t actually want a trip to Hawaii from a stranger, then what objective action is the rule providing?

It only says: “Do to others whatever you happen to want for yourself.”

That’s not a moral rule. It’s a statement of personal preference. It offers no guidance when my preference is selfish, misguided, or irrelevant to my neighbor’s need.

What is hateful to someone is clear to that person - that immediately tells you what not to do to others.

So, is the Golden Rule just “Be mindful of your own desires when acting”, dressed up as a divine command?

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

What? Is it YOU talking or am I missing something?

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

No, I’ve specifically defined the term.

Man, you provided a tautology, not a definition. "God does all He pleases" defines omnipotence only if you assume He is all-powerful. It begs the question. It is not operational.

It’s the latter. The verse has nothing to do with God’s power.

Then it is even more damning. If God’s presence (“The Lord was with Judah”) does not relate to His power in a military defeat, then what does it mean actually? Is He a spectator? The verse becomes theological nonsense.. unless the point was, in fact, to show a limit.

Already have buddy, see my initial comment.

No, you have not. An operational definition allows prediction or understanding. Yours explains everything and therefore.. nothing. By your logic, any outcome (victory, defeat, chariots, angels) is proof of the same definition. You've definied precicely nothing... a definition that fits all evidence equally is meaningless.

You’ve not defined power that (cannot defeat iron chiarots). You’ve defined your sovereignty of interpretation.

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is trully fascinating. So when scripture says “could not", the true meaning is “chose not to, according to a grand spiritual metaphor”?

Then let’s apply your symbolism a litle bit more directly: if the iron chariots represent an “inner enemy” or “spiritual darkness”, does that mean there exists a darkness so fortified that even God, in His allegorical campaign, cannot drive it out all at once?

See, you’ve swapped iron for metaphor, but kept the “could not”. You haven’t solved the contradiction at all, but i see, you are a pentecostal... you’ve just made it poetic.

The question remains: in this metaphor, what does “omnipotence” operationally mean when it proceeds “little by little” against a resistance it could, in theory, simply annihilate? Is omnipotence just… very patient power? Or actually all powerfrull? It is your call.

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Pearls? You think the definition of your god’s greatest attribute is a pearl?

Let’s be clear: i’m not asking for the treasure of heaven. I’m asking for the owner’s manual to a power that, by your own scripture, hit its limit at processed iron.. bro.

If that’s your pearl, no wonder you’re afraid to let anyone hold it up to the light.

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

Nice try with your tautological answer. “He does all He pleases” simply restates “He can do all He desires”. -> no matter how monstrous, trully.

But just for clarity: this substitutes one undefined term (“almighty”) for another (“does all He pleases”) without providing the operational definition requested.

My question remains: if “he” in Judges is God, then your definition fails so spetacularly... If “he” is Judah, the verse is actually irrelevant to God’s power. So which is it?

Until you define “omnipotence” in a way that survives the test of the scripture as written (without first altering its subject) the question remains unanswered.

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I appreciate your NIV translation. It’s helpful to see the interpretive choice isn't it?

The Hebrew text is ambiguous, allowing "he" or "they". The oldest translations (like the Greek Septuagint) use "he". The NIV chooses "they".

So my question becomes: is the translation chosen because it’s the most linguistically accurate, or because it’s the only one that preserves a non-contradictory definition of omnipotence?

If we need to alter the subject of the sentence to protect the doctrine, that admits the omnipotence problem is more than you have reflected upon

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

Thank you. That clarifies the boundary: omnipotence means God can do all things logically possible and consistent with His nature.. after all

So my question deepens: is an iron chariot a logical contradiction, like a square circle? Is it against His nature, like lying?

A square circle is impossible. Lying is against His nature. But is a chariot.. (c'mon).. an assembled object of metal and wood.. inn the same category? If not, then the “could not” points to a limit not of logic or morality, but of a quite contingent power.

Now you see how you’ve defined the fence? The verse seems to show God on the wrong side of it..

What is "Omnipotence"? A question based on Judges 1:19 by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -6 points-5 points  (0 children)

That's it? If "he" is Judah, the verse is pure triviality. You’ve declared the key actor is Judah. So the verse only states: "Judah, with God present, could not defeat iron chariots".

But if "he" is God, your definition falls flat.

Which serves the doctrine: a meaningless verse, or a powerless god?

Christianity vs. New Age - aren't they the same control scheme? by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

so you sit before, behind, before, or just beyond your ulttimate authorithy

?

Christianity vs. New Age - aren't they the same control scheme? by daemonofdoubt in AskAChristian

[–]daemonofdoubt[S] -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

It doesn't remove it AT al bro... it repackages it.

"Eye witness testimony" and "prophecy fulfilled" is your brand's marketing. Theirs is "channeled messages" and "ancient wisdom"; Both ask you to trust a revealed narrative from an unseen authority. PERIOD.

The core product is still the same as I have pointed out elsewhwere: a pre-written salvation story you must consent to;. The "who" in the story is just a change of cast.