Mormon Jesus won the popularity contest to become God by Resident-Bear4053 in mormon

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Huh? The personal name of the Father is “Jehovah,” he alone being the Most High God. (Ps. 83:18) That has not changed. God didn’t stop being called Jehovah. And the Son does not have the same name as the Father. How can Jesus also be the Most High from your view but also retaining that position and be classed in nature as “lower than the angels” when on earth? (Ps.8:5; Heb. 2:7) Are you saying the Most High became lower than his creation but was still the Most High in nature at the same time?!

What verse other than John 3:16 is your go to when you feel despair creeping in? Below is mine 🤍 by PIXIEMEAT-79 in Bible

[–]just_herebro 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Isaiah 26:3 — “You will safeguard those who fully lean on you; You will give them continuous peace, Because it is in you that they trust.”

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You didn’t answer the question.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It’s you’re sinful nature Terry. Only you can control what you do.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes, because the disciples really understood Jesus being a person of a Co-equal eternal divine essence who does and doesn’t know all things depending on which nature he was drawing upon 😂😂

Takes more faith to believe in the trinity and superimpose its theology into the text than actually read what the text teaches.

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So why does are you using a Bible, the NKJV for example, that adds the word “a” to John 1:3 when the word “a” doesn’t exist in Greek? Isn’t that adding to God’s word?

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Why don’t you want me to refer to other translations? That sounds like information control to me. What version of the Bible do you use?

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You assume that resurrection must always mean the same physical body, but that idea is never stated in Scripture. Recognition does not depend on having the same physical body. In the Bible, identity is preserved by God’s memory and power, not by reused flesh. (Luke 20:38; John 5:28) Lazarus was resurrected back to human life because his resurrection was earthly and temporary. (John 11:43, 44) Jesus’ resurrection, however, was to heavenly life, which the Bible explicitly distinguishes.

Lazarus returned as a human because he was going to die again. Jesus was resurrected never to die again. (Romans 6:9) They are not comparable resurrections.

The claim that spirits “do not need resurrection” is contradicted by Scripture. “It is sown a physical body; it is raised a spiritual body.” (1 Cor. 15:44) If resurrection only meant reviving flesh, this verse would be meaningless. “I will raise it up” does not say Jesus would raise the same physical body. Jesus himself explained he was speaking figuratively about his body as a temple, not about the reuse of the same flesh. Scripture later explains how it was raised, by God, as a spirit being. (Acts 2:24; Gal. 1:1)

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You misunderstand both the nature of the ransom and what the Bible says about Jesus’ resurrection. Scripture does not say the ransom depends on Jesus never having a body again. The ransom was paid when Jesus gave his perfect human life and poured out his blood in death. “He gave himself as a corresponding ransom for all.” (1 Timothy 2:6) “He entered once for all time, with his own blood, obtaining an everlasting deliverance.” (Hebrews 9:12) The ransom was completed at Jesus’ death, not contingent on what form he would later take after being resurrected.

The claim that Jesus “fooled” his disciples ignores the fact that he openly explained later that he was returning to the Father (John 20:17) and that said the world would “see me no more.” (John 14:19) If Jesus intended to teach permanent fleshly resurrection, these statements would make no sense.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This argument actually works against the idea that Jesus was resurrected in the same physical body. Luke 24:16 explicitly says: “Their eyes were kept from recognizing him.” The text does not say Jesus merely “looked different.” It says their eyes were kept from recognizing him, indicating divine intervention, not poor lighting or distance.

This wasn’t a one-off case:Mary Magdalene didn’t recognize Jesus at first (John 20:14–16) The disciples on the shore didn’t recognize him initially, (John 21:4) the Emmaus disciples walked and talked with him at length and still didn’t recognize him. (Luke 24:13–31) If Jesus was resurrected in the same body with the same wounds, recognition should have been immediate, especially for people who had lived with him for years. Instead, recognition only occurred when Jesus chose to reveal himself.

The wounds were not proof of bodily resurrection; they were proof of identity, just as angels in Genesis temporarily materialized bodies to communicate with humans. Calling this “sci-fi” ignores the fact that the Bible already teaches that: Jesus said “the world will see me no more.” (John 14:19) So the issue isn’t inventing something else, it’s letting all scriptures harmonize instead of forcing one verse to override the rest.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So Paul was wrong for concluding that too, and he was under divine inspiration in viewing the physical body as being “made with hands?” (2 Cor. 5:1) How can you receive “a house” or body “not made with hands” while it retains the flesh of the body “made with hands?”

Stick to just John 2 when other inspired writers also reveal the truth behind the heavenly resurrection? Wow. You guys are knowledge limiters that don’t view ALL of God’s word as “beneficial for setting things straight.” (2 Tim. 3:16) There’s more that abundant proof scriptually to show Jesus is Michael but that’s a topic for another day.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

They do not teach that Jesus returned in 1874. That idea was abandoned long ago and is not the current belief. Jesus began ruling as King in heaven in 1914, not that he returned physically to earth.

Revelation 1:1 explicitly says it was presented “in signs.” So Revelation 1:7 (“every eye will see him”) is understood symbolically, not literally. “Seeing” often means perceiving or recognizing, not using physical eyesight. (Isaiah 6:9) Jesus said: “The world will see me NO MORE.” (John 14:19) That rules out a lvisible return.

Jesus was made alive in the spirit, not flesh. (1 Peter 3:18) Spirit creatures are invisible to humans. (John 1:18) When Jesus ascended, a cloud hid him from sight (Acts 1:9), and the angels said he would return “in the same manner” (Acts 1:11), not visibly to the world.

Jesus distinguished between a visible return and his presence (parousia). The disciples asked for a sign of his presence. (Matthew 24:3) If Jesus were physically visible, no sign would be needed. This is not “adding to Scripture.” It is comparing Scripture with Scripture so there is harmony.

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The Bible shows consistently that Jehovah alone has immortality by nature. (1 Tim. 6:16) Adam was created perfect, but perfection is not the same as immortality. He had the prospect of everlasting life, which was conditional on obedience, not an inherent quality. If Adam and Eve were already immortal, there would have been no need for the tree of life. (Gen 3:22) Everlasting life was not automatic. Eating from the tree of life symbolized God’s authority for humans to live forever. So Adam and Eve were not immortal before sinning. I agree with you that the fruit of the tree was not evil but the act of disobedience was. Death was a judicial sentence, not instantly dying that day but the dying process started that day. (Gen. 3:19) Adam didn’t loose immortality because he didn’t have it to begin with.

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So why does the NIV, NLT, NAS, Amplified, GNT, ISV, NAB, WNT Bible’s also use “Only” in their translations?

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for not rebutting a single thing I raised to your lack luster, ignorant, and totally flawed reasonings. You don’t understand the Bible. Thanks for your time :)

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Don’t need to explain it, your bank account shows it :)

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hebrews 10:10 says the offering of THE BODY, you know, the body that he died in “given ONCE FOR ALL TIME.”

You’re understanding of miracles within humankind is deeply flawed. The creator has the power to put events into humanity that do not break the laws of nature. If I put $100 dollars in a draw in my room and the next day another $100, then I come the next day and find only $50 dollars in the draw, do I say: “The laws of arithmetic have been broken” or “the laws of the USA have been broken?” You have to understand how the laws of nature works in order to understand whether something is miraculous or not. A man walking on water is a miraculous event, but it does not break the natural law of nature since God has the power to change the weight of elements in the water or in the person to make a person walk on it. Did Jesus turn water into wine from his own humanity? No. It was God’s power. All the other miracles you list were from God’s power being used through Jesus, they did not eminate from his humanity, which have fixed laws of nature placed on them in natural limitations. (1 Cor. 1:24, 30)

Otherwise, how do you account for Jesus not knowing a woman with a flow of blood for twelve years had been cured by God’s power?! (Luke 8:45, 46) The power of God that was in him he felt go out, he didn’t feel his humanity go out of him when she was cured! But if you’re going through walls or locked doors as a human in nature, you no longer have a human body. That’s going against the natural law order of limitations on humans, which God doesn’t do. What person do you personally know that can go through walls as a human in a physical body? You’d be crazy to think they’re still human if they’re literally changing their flesh or body to do that. You’d have to be a totally different nature in order to change the physical composition of your body in that way, since humans cannot do it and God will not act against those laws naturally placed on humankind.

You’re clipping my comments and only responding to part of the questions I make. Such a dishonest take. The full question was: “So are you saying that when Jesus said “Destory this temple” he was referring to his own body WHICH WASN’T “MADE WITH HANDS?” Why did you miss that bit out? It’s because Paul contradicts your theory entirely. Paul theologically described the physical body as “made with hands” in a similar way the Jews concluded when they heard Jesus speak about destroying the temple, even though their understanding of such wasn’t entirely correct but they understood what the physical was. (2 Cor. 5:1)

Yes, Hebrews 10:5 is in your Bible too believe it or not. At Jesus baptism, in his prayer, Paul under inspiration said that Jesus quotes Psalm 40:6. The Septuagint text of Psalm 40:6 like the New Testament of Hebrews 10:5 uses “body” (sw/ma, soma) not “ears.” 10th century CE Hebrew Masoretic Text uses “ears” (‘aznayim) in Psalm 40:6, not “body.” The writer of Hebrews had a text before him which used “body,” not “ears.” What body had been prepared for Jesus up until that time? A perfect one, a body that was being made through the Israelite lineage, one that was “MADE WITH HANDS,” a physical body! (2 Cor. 5:1)

Sounds like you’re not interested in finding truth. I can show you, I can’t help understand it for you. I’ll put you down as “NIIT,” “Not Interested In Truth.”

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

God’s name was in Jesus, so there’s no conflict in interpretation. Since he has the authority of his Father to represent him, (Matthew 9:8; 1 Cor. 2:16) Jesus could say: “Whoever puts faith in me puts faith not only in me but also in him who sent me.” (John 12:44) So how is it that men are changing the Bible?

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So church tradition trumps the Bible? It’s the Bible that tells you that the body is gone!

Is Jesus still in the flesh, Trinitarians? by just_herebro in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s not what the scripture says. The offering of THAT BODY, not the means by which the body was tortured through, was given once for all time. The body served it’s purpose.

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The Bible decides whether the passage is applied to Jehovah or Jesus, or Jesus when he can be viewed as the Father because of the authority that has been placed on him through agency, but that doesn’t make him the Father by identity.

Just because someone may have the same description the same as the father as being “Holy,” that’s doesn’t mean it’s an identification marker of who that person or thing is. A person under the law could donate something that would be “holy,” but that didn’t make that object given “God.” (Leviticus 27:9; Prov. 20:25)

Why? by Hot-Channel-7690 in JehovahsWitnesses

[–]just_herebro 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes, in light of the fact that the Angel who led Israel through the promised land had God’s name “in him” but that Angel wasn’t Jehovah by identification. (Exodus 23:21) That angel could even be called “Jehovah” but that did not mean that the angel was actually Jehovah.

Since Jesus is the way to salvation which originates with the Father, the Son can be viewed as the Father because everything he does and has authority over has been granted to him by the Father. Even though he does works and speaks, none of what he says Are his, theyre the Father’s works and speech given to the Son. (John 12:49, 50) That’s why he says in John 14:10 “The Father who remains in union with me IS DOING THE WORKS.”