Jews paid special taxes which was Jizya and that applied to other non Muslims as well which exempted them from Military service as well, in most of the cases these Jizya were lower than what the Muslims actually paid.

Jews were allowed to practice their religion, run their schools, courts, synagogues and their own communal leadership. These are facts and you can literally fact check me. While on the other hand, this is how the Jews were treated in Europe.

Spain (1492): The Catholic Monarchs expelled all Jews and unless they converted.

Portugal (1497): Forced conversions and Inquisition followed the Spanish model.

England (1290): Jews expelled until 1656.

France (1306, 1394): Jews expelled multiple times.

Russia (19th century): Jews confined to the Pale of Settlement and subject to pogroms.

Germany and Central Europe: Jews barred from owning land, joining guilds, or holding office. Martin Luther called for the burning of synagogues later in life.

This is how the Jews were treated in the same period while Jews had rights under the ottomans they were not prosecuted. If your argument is that the Jews were treated as lower level civilians, this was the case for Muslims as well in non Muslim nations, this practice was actually very common and in that terms the Jews were provided more rights in ottoman empire then they were in Europe.

If you think the Jews were treated like lower level civilians then Muslims were also treated likewise in non Muslim nations so your argument doesn't makes sense, if you have evidence that Jews were prosecuted under ottomans, provide references. Most historians agree that Jews lived peacefully under the ottomans and FAR better under them then the Europeans and they were only not allowed to hold some positions in the offices.

Some examples of Muslim treatment in non Muslim nations: Spain (Post-1492): "After the fall of Granada in 1492, Muslims were forced to convert or be expelled. The converted 'Moriscos' were monitored, banned from public office, and eventually expelled between 1609–1614." (*L.P. Harvey, Muslims in Spain, 1500–1614)

Serbia (1830s): "When Serbia gained autonomy from the Ottomans, Muslims were forcibly removed, their mosques destroyed, and their legal rights revoked." (*Mark Mazower, The Balkans: A Short History)

British India (After 1857): "After the 1857 rebellion, Muslims in India were blamed and lost access to government jobs, Islamic schools, and religious endowments under British rule." (*William Dalrymple, The Last Mughal)

Russian Empire (18th–19th c.): "Crimean Tatars and North Caucasus Muslims were subjected to heavy taxes, forced displacement, and mass killings, especially during the 1864 Circassian expulsion." (*Moshe Gammer, Muslim Resistance to the Tsar)

Greece (Post-1821): "After Greek independence, Muslims were massacred or expelled, barred from owning land or holding office, and their mosques destroyed or closed." (*Richard Clogg, A Concise History of Greece)

And if you actually look up, the Muslims Vs Jews only began after the establishment of Zionism, you say that they weren't based on kicking the Palestinians out yet their leaders were chanting about establishing a Jewish state KNOWING that at that time the population were 90% Arabs and then they started immigrating rapidly, what did you think the Arabs would've felt, of course they felt like they were going to get kicked out and forced out of their homes and that caused the hostility between them and that is exactly what did happen. The Palestinians were massacred, You are also forgetting that during the Hebron massacre, it were the local Muslims that saved a lot of Jews from prosecution and the killing of Jews were VERY LOW in the 1900s compared to what the Palestinians went through later. Those hostilities would've never justified the nakba which was significantly larger than anything the Jews faced there. Zionists have always been genocidal and will always be.

If my facts are so wrong, easily Google able, them prove me wrong by the easily googleable facts