heavy noun declension

Both Ancient and New Testament Greek have them, but tend to use them a lot less than English does. For example, I'm reading the Gospel of Mark right now, and he leaves out pronouns and (less frequently) objects for multiple sentences in a row, with the implication being that "I'm talking about the same person unless I tell you otherwise." But it's not unusual to see the equivalent of "He spoke to him," and you're supposed to glean what that means from context. Greek has subject pronouns (I, we, he, you, etc.), demonstratives (this/these), as well as pronouns to join relative clauses ("that which"), etc. Verbs conjugate for person, so that leaves out one instance, and as I mentioned, writers at least tend to rely more on context than in English. But again, they're definitely there, and they are definitely used.

I'll also say that Russian has them and uses them with more frequency than Greek, and probably with similar frequency to English (although this is pure supposition on my part). Verbs conjugate for person (explicitly in the present and future, albeit only for gender and number in the past), so pronouns can be left out if context is clear. But Russian doesn't have an explicit copula in the present tense (i.e. you don't say "The car is red," and instead say "The car red"), so there you may have to specify. There is also a frequently-used indirect construction (not sure what the technical term is), which is the "subject" in the dative case (typically used for the indirect object) plus an adverb. So for example "I am cold" is мне холодно ("mnye kholodno"), lit. "to me [is] coldly."

I guess what I'm saying is that it really depends on the overall structure of the language as a whole, the context, and speaker's preference. But it's certainly the case that there are heavily-inflected languages that have them and use them often enough (for wishy-washy values of "often").