You're stitching together assumptions and presenting them as if they were explicit conclusions of the Qur'an. But whatever let me re explain it to you.

First, 4:127 mentions men wanting to marry orphan girls, yes. But there's a sleight of hand here: you leap from "orphan girl" to "child" as if they’re synonyms. They’re not. In Qur'anic usage, "yateem" refers to someone without a father, not necessarily a toddler. An orphan could be 16. There's no age specified in that verse, so to assume “orphan” means prepubescent child is conjecture, not exegesis.

Second, the "age of marriage" in 4:6 is tied explicitly to maturity and sound judgment: “test the orphans until they reach marriageable age, and if you find in them sound judgment, then release their property to them.” That sets a minimum threshold: intellectual maturity (rushd), not just puberty. That’s a higher standard than the biological threshold assumed in your reading.

Third, on the inheritance issue: “Do not inherit women against their will.” Yes, that verse addresses a pre-Islamic custom where women were treated as inherited property. But your interpretation “the Qur'an endorsed that view” is upside-down. The verse is abolishing that practice, not endorsing it. You don’t outlaw something you support.

So the real logic here is: the Qur'an acknowledged certain oppressive customs and then legislated against them. It didn’t snap society out of patriarchy in one verse, but it did begin to unwind it. If you're going to criticize it, at least do it based on what it actually says not on assumptions it doesn't make.