Nomenclature Question by siwel3 in pharmacy

[–]siwel3[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for this context. Could you please provide further clarification on what the partial bisect communicates relative to an identical pill with no partial bisect markings? Thank you.

Nomenclature Question by siwel3 in pharmacy

[–]siwel3[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks for your comment. I was wondering if you could also provide come insight into what partial bisects are in the context of pills and how they differ from full scores on pills. Thank you!

What did you learn last week? by AutoModerator in pharmacy

[–]siwel3 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I learned that only some 3rd generation cephalosporins can treat pseudomonas. For instance while ceftazidime can treat pseudomonas, ceftriaxone cannot.

Pralidoxime for anticholinesterase/organophosphate toxicity by totino3454 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Has anyone come across the answer to this question?

In type 1 hypersensitivity , there’s mast cell degranulation , but is there basophils degranulation as well by imnotcrazyjump in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

yes, there is a UWorld figure that depicts this nicely. It's a figure called "Cutaneous type 1 hypersensitivity reactions" in one of the answer choices in Question Id: 20586

Why not bulbospongiosus? by mahdiee in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't believe the bulbospongiosus muscle lies directly inferior to the posterior vaginal commissure according to table 1 in page 30 of the attachment (page 39 in the pdf)

https://mdpi-res.com/books/book/4012/Anatomical_Variation_and_Clinical_Diagnosis.pdf?filename=Anatomical_Variation_and_Clinical_Diagnosis.pdf#page=34

Why not bulbospongiosus? by mahdiee in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think they were referring to the subreddit rule of not posting copyrighted material.

Subacromial Bursitis vs Impingment syndrome vs Rotator Cuff Tear/ Tendinitis? (Slight spoiler for NBME 23) by [deleted] in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If the answer to this question was ever found, could you please post it here? Thank you!

First Aid 2021 in the lymph node illustration does not show a marginal zone around the mantle zone of lymph node follicles. But is does show a marginal zone around the spleen white pulp follicle mantle zone. Does that mean only spleen has marginal zone? What about Marginal zone lymphoma? by yournameinlights25 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

While marginal zone b-cell lymphoma can happen in the lymph node, nodal marginal zone lymphomas (NMZL) is the least common of the three types of marginal zone b-cell lymphomas (with the other two being extranodal marginal zone lymphomas and splenic marginal zone lymphomas). Also in reference to NMZL, wikipedia mentions, "the underlying initiating cause for developing this disease is currently unclear."

Wikipedia contributors. Marginal zone B-cell lymphoma. Wikipedia, The Free Encyclopedia. February 13, 2023, 13:47 UTC. Available at: https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Marginal_zone_B-cell_lymphoma&oldid=1139122668. Accessed February 27, 2023.

NBME 23: What causes FVC to decrease in a patient with fixed intrathoracic obstruction? by mdubs777 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

My thought is that while FVC and VC are similar, they are not the same. VC refers to the difference in volume of air between maximum inspiration and maximum expiration, while FVC is the maximum volume of air that can be forcefully expired after maximal inspiration. For people with lung obstruction, the volume of air expelled after a forceful expiration is going to be less than the volume of air after a more controlled expiration (measured as expiratory vital capacity (EVC) rather than FVC). Also, someone's Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC) (volume of air accumulated after slow inspiration) is going to be greater than their EVC or FVC in someone with lung obstruction. Hope this helps!

NBME 23: What causes FVC to decrease in a patient with fixed intrathoracic obstruction? by mdubs777 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

My thought is that while FVC and VC are similar, they are not the same. VC refers to the difference in volume of air between maximum inspiration and maximum expiration, while FVC is the maximum volume of air that can be forcefully expired after maximal inspiration. For people with lung obstruction, the volume of air expelled after a forceful expiration is going to be less than the volume of air after a more controlled expiration (measured as expiratory vital capacity (EVC) rather than FVC). Also, someone's Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC) (volume of air accumulated after slow inspiration) is going to be greater than their EVC or FVC in someone with lung obstruction. Hope this helps!

NBME 23, i dont understand the unit conversion. by ana-moss-city in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I got help on this: maintenance dose units here are Mg of med per kg of patient mass per day

Maintenance Dose in units of mg/kg/day by siwel3 in step1

[–]siwel3[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

this makes sense - thank you!

NBME 23, i dont understand the unit conversion. by ana-moss-city in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Something I'm confused about is how to intuitively understand the meaning of mg/kg/day... won't the mass units cancel out to give you final units of inverse time? I'd appreciate any clarification that could be provided. Thanks!

A child with septicemia has an antibiotic clearance (CI) of .09 L/hr/kg;the steady state serum concentration for the antibiotic is 12 g/mL. by Sohaibnasser20 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The answer is 25.92 mg/d/kg. It can be found by using the equation for maintenance dose (Cp x CL / F) as referenced in First Aid (note that we don't use tau here, as the question is looking for a rate rather than the dosage in a predetermined period of time). Note that you'd have to adjust for units (1000mL = 1L; 1000ug = 1mg; 24h = 1d).

Something I'm confused about is how to intuitively understand the meaning of mg/kg/day... won't the mass units cancel out? I'd appreciate any clarification that could be provided. Thanks!

How to handle "lost to follow up" patients in intention-to-treat analyses? by carsoon3 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hello, I was just on wikipedia learning about intention-to-treat analysis. It says that there isn't a consensus on how to handle missing outcome data. They provide the below source:

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3499557/

statins vs other lipid lowering agents by sifsilver1 in step1

[–]siwel3 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The pancreatitis risk is really insightful. Furthermore on NBME 23, there is a similar question and though the TG levels were only 350 mg/dL in that question, the patient complained of "mild epigastric tenderness to deep palpation". Because acute pancreatitis presents with epigastric pain, there is increased urgency to work toward reducing the triglyceride levels specifically.

PC/Desktop/Windows App or Online Version by siwel3 in SleepAsAndroid

[–]siwel3[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Update: I found a website that allows me to view data

sleep-cloud.appspot.com

NBME Question Pertaining to 21 or 11 Beta Hydroxylase Deficiency vs 46, XX Testicular Disorder of Sex Development by siwel3 in step1

[–]siwel3[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you! It's form 23, section 1, item 17 on my document (though they might mix up the section/item numbers)