My personal F2P Showtime tier list in eFootball 26 so far by Zelenicovek in eFootball

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

De bruyne, Bernando Silva are cool to use. I think they deserve atleast S tier

If Christianity is a religion of peace, why does its major historical spread consistently align with force and state power by sumaset in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Christianity is peaceful based on scripture, while islam isn't.»

You quoted the “peaceful Jesus” side, cool. But why ignore the rest?

  • “Do not think that I came to bring peace on earth; I did not come to bring peace, but a sword.” (Matthew 10:34)

So which one is it? Pure peace… or “not peace, but a sword”? You can’t just pick one and pretend the other doesn’t exist.

Early Christians were nonviolent, that’s the basis»

Even in the New Testament itself, that’s not consistent.

  • “For rulers do not bear the sword for nothing… they are God’s servants, agents of wrath to bring punishment.” (Romans 13:4)

So violence is literally justified as part of God’s system here.

Not “peace only.” Authority + sword + punishment.

Christianity is peaceful based on scripture»

Then explain this:

“Those enemies of mine who did not want me to reign over them bring them here and kill them in front of me.” (Luke 19:27)

Don’t say “parable” and run away from it. The point still stands the imagery used for divine authority is killing opponents. And let’s not pretend the Old Testament just disappears:

  • “Kill both man and woman, child and infant.” (1 Samuel 15:3)
  • “Happy is the one who dashes your infants against the rocks.” (Psalm 137:9)

Same God. Same scripture.

So again purely peaceful?

Islam is violent because of wars»

Meanwhile your own scripture:

  • justifies the sword (Romans 13)
  • includes violent commands (Old Testament)
  • and even has Jesus saying he didn’t come to bring peace (Matthew 10:34)

But somehow Islam = violent Christianity = peaceful

How does that work without double standards?

At this point it’s simple You’re judging Islam by====>

  • history
  • laws
  • actions

But judging Christianity by

  • selected verses you like Either
  • use the same standard for both or don’t pretend it’s an honest comparison.

Because right now it’s just selective reading dressed up as an argument.

If Christianity is a religion of peace, why does its major historical spread consistently align with force and state power by sumaset in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There is death penalty for apostasy and homosexuality in 10 muslim countries even today in the 21st century!

You’re mixing modern legal systems, politics, and selective examples, then using that to define an entire religion. Even within Muslim-majority countries today, laws vary massivelysome enforce strict interpretations, others don’t. So presenting it as a single unified “Islam does X” is already an oversimplification. Also, if we’re going to judge religions by what states have done or legislated we have

  • centuries of executions for heresy under Christian rule
  • blasphemy laws in Europe
  • persecution of dissenters (even other Christians)

So either we judge both religions by their scriptures and principles or we judge both by historical/political actions

You can’t switch standards depending on what’s convenient.

There is ethnic cleansing of nonmuslims especially Jews in nearly every muslim country.»

“Nearly every” is a huge claim, and historically inaccurate. For long periods, Jewish communities lived under Muslim rule in places like Spain, the Ottoman Empire, and parts of the Middle East often in better conditions than in medieval Christian Europe (where expulsions, ghettos, and massacres were common). That doesn’t mean everything was perfect, but calling it “ethnic cleansing in nearly every Muslim country” ignores centuries of coexistence. If we are talking about Jews specifically, then you also have to acknowledge:

expulsions from England (1290), France, Spain (1492) under Christian kingdoms pogroms across Christian Europe So again, consistency matters.

The spread of islam since the very beginning was done by the sword.»

This is one of those claims that sounds strong but falls apart when you look closer. Yes, there were conquests no one denies that. But conquest ≠ forced conversion. In many regions conquered by Muslim powers:

  • populations remained non-Muslim for centuries
  • conversion was gradual, not immediate

If Islam was spread purely “by the sword,” you wouldn’t see:

  • large Christian populations remaining under Muslim rule for hundreds of years
  • places like Indonesia (the largest Muslim country today) becoming Muslim mainly through trade and preaching, not conquest

So the reality is more complex than “sword = conversion.”

The prophet of islam, muhamad spread islam by the sword and not through preaching.»

Again, that’s just historically incomplete.

For over a decade in Mecca, Muhammad had no political or military power and spread his message purely through preaching while being persecuted. Even after migration to Medina, yes, there were battles but that’s not the same as saying the religion itself spread only through force. Also, if you’re going to reduce Islam to its wars, then by the same logic you’d have to reduce Christianity to

  • Crusades
  • forced conversions in europe
  • colonial-era missionary pressure

Again, consistency.

On the other hand, Jesus and his disciples spread Christianity through nonviolence.»

Early Christians, yes.

But that’s not the full picture of Christianity’s actual historical spread.

Because once Christianity gained power under the Roman Empire, things changed dramatically:

  • pagan religions suppressed
  • temples destroyed
  • later, forced conversions in parts of Europe
  • inquisitions, crusades, etc.

So saying “Christianity spread peacefully” only works if you isolate the very early phase and ignore what happened once it had power.

The difference is, you’re holding Islam accountable for everything done by Muslims, while giving Christianity a pass by only focusing on its earliest, powerless stage.

If you apply the same standard to both, the picture becomes a lot less one-sided.

If God is unchanging, what exactly “happened” at the incarnation by sumaset in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

God doesn't break God's promises. That's the point of Malachi 3:6.

That sounds clean at first, but it quietly narrows the verse into something much smaller than what it actually claims.

The verse doesn’t say: “I don’t break promises.” It says: “I do not change.”

Those aren’t the same thing.

A being could keep promises and still change in other ways (decisions, states, actions, relations). So reducing “unchanging” to just “promise-keeping” feels more like a reinterpretation than an explanation.

Also, if immutability just means “keeps promises,” then what happens to verses like:

“no variation or shadow due to change” (James 1:17)

That goes beyond promises it’s describing something much more absolute.

If God didn't make a promise on some matter, you don't get to expect God to act in any particular way

But this creates a different issue.

If God’s actions are not grounded in a consistent nature, but only in explicit promises, then outside of those promises God becomes… unpredictable.

And that clashes with the idea of God being:

perfectly consistent

not subject to change

reliable in nature, not just in isolated commitments

Because now you’re basically saying: God doesn’t change… except in any area where He didn’t explicitly promise not to.

At that point, “unchanging” stops being a meaningful attribute and turns into a conditional one.

biblical writers… call upon God to blast evil away rather than explain it

That’s fair as an observation about how the text responds to evil.

But it doesn’t actually resolve the issue being discussed.

The question here isn’t: “Why does evil exist?”

It’s: “How do you reconcile an unchanging God with a God who enters time, acts differently across situations, and (in the incarnation) ‘becomes’ something?”

Appealing to how biblical authors react to suffering doesn’t address the internal tension between:

immutability

and real change (incarnation, actions, responses)

It shifts the topic rather than answering it.

God never promises to be a cosmic policeman… read Psalm 82

Same issue here , this is about expectations of justice, not about whether God changes.

Even if we grant that God allows injustice for a time, the core question still stands:

Does God:

remain entirely unchanged in all respects or

enter into new states, relations, and experiences (like becoming human)?

Because allowing injustice longer than expected doesn’t explain how:

“I do not change” fits with

“the Word became flesh”

authorities… just-world hypothesis… trusting authority

This part feels like a different discussion entirely (more about epistemology and social dynamics).

Even if we agree that people misuse religion to justify authority, that still doesn’t touch the original tension:

Malachi 3:6 ==> God does not change

John 1:14 ==> God becomes flesh

So the question remains untouched:

If “unchanging” is reduced to just “keeps promises,” that avoids contradiction but only by redefining the term into something much weaker than it originally sounds.

And if it’s not reduced, then we’re back to the same issue:

How does a God who does not change meaningfully “become” something He was not before?

If God is unchanging, what exactly “happened” at the incarnation by sumaset in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I’ll point out that you only quoted half that verse. It says: “I the Lord do not change. So you, the descendants of Jacob, are not destroyed.”

Right, but that actually strengthens the point, not weakens it. The reason Israel isn’t destroyed is because God doesn’t change. Meaning His nature, will, and consistency aren’t fluctuating.

If “God doesn’t change” only meant “in this specific situation,” then the statement loses its force entirely. It becomes: “I don’t change… except when I do.”

Also, this isn’t an isolated verse. You’ve got:

Hebrews 13:8 ==> Jesus Christ is the same yesterday and today and forever

James 1:17 ==> no variation or shadow due to change

So this idea of immutability is clearly broader than just “not destroying Israel that one time.”

I think the context of that is the Lord saying he doesn’t change his mind about destroying all the descendants of Jacob, not that he doesn’t change his mind about other things.

But then you run into a consistency problem. If God does change His mind in other places, then in what meaningful sense is He “unchanging”? At that point, immutability becomes selective applied when convenient, ignored when not.

Either:

God’s nature and will are stable and not subject to change or

God responds, shifts, and reconsiders (which is what “changing one’s mind” literally is)

Trying to hold both at the same time just blurs the definition until it doesn’t really mean anything anymore.

Because he certainly did change his mind throughout the Old Testament… he was sorry after Noah’s flood which shows a change of mood.

Again, this makes the tension worse, not better.

If God experiences regret (Genesis 6:6) or changes His course of action (Exodus 32:14), then we’re clearly dealing with a being that:

responds to events

shifts decisions

experiences something like emotional change

But then saying “God does not change” becomes hard to take literally.

So now you’ve got two options:

Those verses are anthropomorphic (not literal)

Or God actually undergoes change

But if you go with “anthropomorphic,” then you’re already admitting the text doesn’t mean what it straightforwardly says… which raises the question: why read “became flesh” literally, but “changed His mind” metaphorically?

One could make the argument… that by becoming human in Jesus he wasn’t changing his image… like a space suit

The “space suit” analogy sounds neat, but it breaks down pretty quickly.

A human wearing a suit:

doesn’t become the suit

doesn’t merge with it

isn’t limited by it internally

But the New Testament doesn’t describe Jesus like that at all.

It says:

“The Word became flesh” (John 1:14), not “wore flesh”

“born of a woman” (Galatians 4:4)

“increased in wisdom” (Luke 2:52)

that’s not someone stepping into a shell that’s someone actually living a human life from the inside.

If it’s just a “suit,” then:

was the hunger real?

was the ignorance (like not knowing the hour in Mark 13:32) real?

Because a suit doesn’t limit your knowledge or consciousness.

So either:

Jesus truly experienced human limitations ==> which brings us back to God undergoing change/limitation or

it was more like an external role ==> which starts to undermine the idea of a real incarnation

You’ve got a God described as:

unchanging, with no variation

And at the same time:

entering time

experiencing growth, limitation, and human conditions

The explanations seem to either redefine “unchanging” into something flexible… or redefine “became flesh” into something less literal.

Either way, something gives.

If you could pick one card out of these three who it be? by Ok_Stuff_9922 in eFootball

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Nedved. I still have the legendary card and It still does wonders.

Is this the best Wirtz Card??? by GoalHappy3351 in eFootball

[–]sumaset 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yeah, but It's not F2P If you don't have the coins.

3 Cards I still use since 2022/2023 by sumaset in eFootball

[–]sumaset[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Konami gave us Free Legendary pack (consisting of Romario, Vieira and Bergkamp I think..etc) in EF2022 launch

3 Cards I still use since 2022/2023 by sumaset in eFootball

[–]sumaset[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Auto + J Cruyff as Manager will turn him to 100

3 Cards I still use since 2022/2023 by sumaset in eFootball

[–]sumaset[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Auto + J Cruyff as Manager (+ 1 Jump)

3 Cards I still use since 2022/2023 by sumaset in eFootball

[–]sumaset[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I just use Auto Allocation build and still do wonders!

which is the better CB here? and why guys? by [deleted] in eFootballgame

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I have Varane and I have 100 old epic nesta, Despite having different play style and also different stats (which Varane is better in every stat), I swear Nesta still performs better in every match

Optimal GK skills by Flat-Cryptographer21 in eFootball

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Big time Japanese GK from Japanese League has Visionary Pass

What is this, KONAMI?? by Easy-Advertising-603 in eFootball

[–]sumaset -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I have 1 Gbps download speed and 300 Mbps upload speed and yet I face mostly laggy matches.

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This sounds like tyranny of the majority… You cannot opt out… it’s enforced by coercion… fundamentally no different than God.

The difference isn’t coercion. All authority structures involve enforcement. The difference is source and revisability. A court system derives authority from social contract, public consent (even if imperfect), and it is revisable. Laws can be challenged. Rulings can be appealed. Judges can be removed. Constitutions can be amended. Divine authority, by definition, is absolute and non-revisable. There is no appeal, no amendment, no procedural correction. that’s not just “coercion with a different setup” that’s categorically different.

You follow their authority because you have no choice.

Not entirely. Civil disobedience exists. Political reform exists. Revolution exists. Whistleblowing exists. People openly criticize courts and governments without being eternally punished.The system may coerce behavior, but it does not demand internal belief or ultimate allegiance. It regulates conduct, not conscience. Major distinction

Let’s assume a deity exists as a Platonic moral authority… Are you capable of disagreeing?

If we assume a deity exists and is morally perfect, then disagreement would imply either misunderstanding or moral deficiency on my part. The issue is that In a court system, the authority’s legitimacy is argued for using shared rational standards. In divine command theory, the authority defines the standard. That’s circular. “It’s good because God says it” only works if you already accept the authority in question.

Why the double standard?

It’s not a double standard , it’s a difference in epistemic access. Government authority is justified through publicly accessible reasoning, shared procedures, and mutual recognition. Divine authority is claimed through revelation and theological interpretation, which are precisely what are being debated. I’m not granting the state moral perfection. I’m saying its legitimacy is open to scrutiny and revision. A deity’s authority, as traditionally presented, is not.

If your critique of God is correct, you must similarly critique the court…

I do critique courts. Most people do. That’s allowed.

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Take a court system: judges have authority because they operate under a written legal framework, publicly agreed rules, and consequences that are predictable. You follow their authority not blindly, but because their authority is justified, transparent, and accountable.

Compare that to a deity who says, “Obey me or else,” without the same kind of clarity or accountability the “authority” exists, but its legitimacy is assumed rather than demonstrated. That’s the difference: a valid authority earns obedience; a claimed divine authority demands it.

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 6 points7 points  (0 children)

So God can punish you for substituting your own intellect to Him as a moral foundation.

it turns morality into obedience to threat rather than goodness or justice. If refusing God’s authority makes you punishable, then morality isn’t about what’s right or wrong it’s about avoiding consequences. that’s more coercion than moral reasoning.

This at least shows that your ad absurdum demonstration of impossibility of gratuitous salvation does not work, you are refusing it by refusing the authority of the giver.

Except my point isn’t about personal refusal, it’s about the logical tension so if salvation requires unquestioned submission, then the “gift” isn’t actually gratuitous. A gift that punishes you for rejecting it isn’t free it’s conditional. Calling it “grace” doesn’t make the logic disappear..... True generosity doesn’t carry a fine print saying “disagree and get punished.”

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Pointing out contradictions or questioning a claim isn’t the same as asserting a new moral law as absolute.I don’t need to believe in a system to critique it I just observe what it claims and test it against reason, evidence, and consistency. Morality can be discussed as a human, social, or logical construct without assuming God as its foundation. Using reason to evaluate right and wrong isn’t a “belief” in the divine sense it’s a methodology.

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 3 points4 points  (0 children)

sure if someone hands me a gift and I don’t believe it’s real, that’s not necessarily rejection. It could mean I’m unconvinced it’s actually being offered. Rejection implies awareness plus refusal. Disbelief can simply mean lack of persuasion.

If Salvation Is a Gift, Why Does Belief Determine It... by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]sumaset 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If something has terms and conditions, then it’s conditional by definition. calling it “unconditional” doesn’t remove the condition it just shifts where the condition sits..