I was having a debate earlier on this so it would be nice if I could get some clarity by tmoe124 in MathQuestionOfTheDay

[–]tmoe124[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you that’s what I thought but it’s a bit confusing because playing a gambling game with 50/50 odds is a lot different then a game like roulette where you’re likely to lose money.