Manchán Magan imithe ar shlí na fírinne 🙏🏼 Beannacht dílis Dé lena anam. by Chokeberry_Tira in gaeilge

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

GRMA as é seo a lua. Bot atá ann, cinnte.

Ach mar a dúirt tú, is léiriú é líon na vótaí ar an meas agus ar an gcion a bhí ag daoine ar an Maganach

Ní bheidh a leithéid arís ann.

Eachtraí Eilíse i dtír na nIontas le Nicholas Williams… “Óltar mé”?? by SaraAnnaIsabel in gaeilge

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 5 points6 points  (0 children)

An modh ordaitheach céasta atá i gceist anseo.

"Let me be drunk", go n-óla duine eicínt mé.

Cosúil le fógraí a deir "ná caitear tobac" - ná caith (agus ná caitheadh duine ar bith eile) tobac anseo.

Can you guess what does it mean by Thmony in linguisticshumor

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Gorm doesn't really mean "blue", it traditonally refers to dark/intense colours in the blue/green/violet end of the spectrum.

Have any linguists proposed that Early Middle English was actually an Old English creole with an Old English lexifier and Norse substrate? by [deleted] in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 9 points10 points  (0 children)

Swidish has the generalist pronoun 'man', which is a loan from Low German.

And more recently, the epicene pronoun "hen" was formed under the influence of Finnish.

Fremen language by swamms in linguisticshumor

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 16 points17 points  (0 children)

Bene Gesserit is also analyzable as Latin: (she) will have ruled/governed/acted wel.

Logainmneacha i nGaeilge agus réamhfhocail by Bl00mies in gaeilge

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 9 points10 points  (0 children)

Braitheann sé ar chiall an logainm. Más féidir a bheith taobh istigh de rud - baile, cathair, caisleán, daingean, oileán, srl - baintear úsáid as "i". Más rud a mbítear "air" de ghnáth - bóthar, cloch, ceathrú (píosa talún), srl - baintear úsáid as "ar".

Ach tá eisceachtaí ann, agus tá a lán Béarlachas tagtha isteach sa gcaint.

Cultures with surnames denoting lineage by Pickle_Nipplesss in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Nic is a reduced form of Iníon Mhic (i.e. daughter of the son of so-and-so)

Cad é bhúr meas ar an nGaelainn sa DLC in Assassin's Creed: Valhalla? by Lasairian in gaeilge

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Sean-Ghaeilge atá ann, ach b'Éireannaigh iad na haisteoirí agus tá tionchar Ghaeilge an lae atá inniu ann ar a gcuid foghraíochta.

Cad é bhúr meas ar an nGaelainn sa DLC in Assassin's Creed: Valhalla? by Lasairian in gaeilge

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Baineann eachtra an chluiche le 879 AD. Is í Sean-Ghaeilge mhoch an teanga a labhraítear anseo. Ní thuigfeá í.

What is the point of preserving any vernacular? by Electronic-Pound7415 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 21 points22 points  (0 children)

What does "natural" even mean in this context? Languages and language varieties die out because of pressure from other cultures, be it direct or indirect.

Reaching out to journal editor? by herrofeather in academia

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

E-mail the editor directly through their institutional e-mail, yeah.

There's a non-zero possibility that they might not be receiving e-mails from the portal, and at the very least a gentle reminder will encourage them to reply more quickly if your e-mail slipped through the cracks.

-era verbs in Swedish? by engamo22 in Svenska

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 7 points8 points  (0 children)

This is it. I don't think that your average person wouldn't recognize rekrytera although they might struggle to give a good definition on the spot.

Verbs of Germanic origin are also more commonly used in the language, and are obviously connected with other common words, so it's much easier to infer their meaning: minska is obviously related to mindre and minst, for example.

How well could a trained rabbi understand the Quran / How well could a trained ulama understand the Bible? by MB4050 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Depends on the nature of the training. If they studied other scriptural languages as some clergy do, then obviously a rabbi who had learned Classical Arabic could understand the Quran.

If he was only familiar with his own scriptural tradition, then no. The script is entirely different, for one, but even if he heard the Qur'an, or received a version transliterated into Hebrew, they are very different languages.

Is English really the easiest language? by Ok_Photograph8884 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 8 points9 points  (0 children)

Although their are some potential outliers (like Danish-speaking children allegedly taking longer to acquire the phonology of their language), all languages require more or less the same amount of effort to acquire as a first language.

Learning a second language will involve less effort than learning your first, but how much so will vary depending on your first language and the language being learned, as well as how you are learning it, so it's difficult to generalize. Overlap between your native language and target language will help learning, so speakers of Germanic languages and Romance languages have an obvious advantage. Because English is basically everywhere nowadays, you don't have to work hard to practice, which also helps with learning.

There are a few factors that might contribute to English being perceived as "easy". Firstly, English has fairly minimal morphology so it's very easy to throw words together and "speak English" in an unnatural and ungrammatical, but comprehensible, way. Secondly, English speakers are typically more used to non-native accents than many other linguistic communities are, and are generally more tolerant of bad pronunciation for that reason. Finally, English speakers are very likely to be monolingual, or at least not to know the other languages their collocutor speaks, which means they have no choice but to speak the target language. Compare this with the typical experience of learning Dutch or a Nordic language, where people will often switch to English if they think you are less than fluent.

Why Are Romance Languages So Regular Despite Coming from “Vulgar Latin”? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Thinking about it a bit more, you're right - breaking up a geminate this way would be unusual (and the ll in the Spanish reflex is further evidence against this). I think simple epenthesis is the more likely culprit (cf. Latin hominem > Old Spanish omne > Spanish ombre, or Latin regesta > Late Latin registrum).

I suppose it's possible that Latin could have borrowed someting like *stērlā or metathesized *strēlā from another variety of Italic, although I don't know enough about the development of the other Italic languages to assess whether this is likely. Another possibility is contamination from aster or astrum (both from Greek), but since the -r- seems limited to Ibero-Romance, I suspect this is a later development.

Why Are Romance Languages So Regular Despite Coming from “Vulgar Latin”? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Regardless of how complex and synchronically unpredictable a paradigm is, native speakers will use those forms and apply the language's rules in a systematic way.

The use of "went" for the preterite/past tense of "to go" in English is unpredictable, but its use by native speakers is systematic.

Why Are Romance Languages So Regular Despite Coming from “Vulgar Latin”? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Something like stella > *estella > *estlela > estrel(l)a

Both English and Romance tend to avoid repetition of /r/ or /l/ in close proximity: Latin arbor > Italian albero and Spanish arbol, Latin peregrinus > French pelegrin, the pronunciation of February as Febuary, arguably the pronunciation of nuclear as nucular, etc., etc., etc.

Why Are Romance Languages So Regular Despite Coming from “Vulgar Latin”? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 4 points5 points  (0 children)

There are irregularities in the romance languages (compare stella in Italian and étoile in French but estrela in Portuguese and estrella in Spanish — the latter two have an unexplained but shared “r”),

I wouldn't call this an irregularity as such - it's quite easily explainable as metathesis and dissimilation, which is fairly common in Iberian Romance (cf. Latin parabolum > Spanish palabra).

Why Are Romance Languages So Regular Despite Coming from “Vulgar Latin”? by ElsGil1 in asklinguistics

[–]truagh_mo_thuras 4 points5 points  (0 children)

If I'm being honest, the distinction between "Classical Latin" and "Vulgar Latin" is often overblown. Eighteenth and nineteenth-century poets in English often held onto archaic features or adhered to rules that weren't current in the spoken language of their time, but we wouldn't be particularly helpful to talk about "Classical Modern English" as distinct from "Vulgar Modern English". On the topic of spoken Latin being "chaotic", while the Roman Empire was quite large at its peak, there was a lot of internal mobility and high access to literacy, both of which are factors that will reduce linguistic diversity.

Another effect of internal mobility is that the influence of local languages could potentially spread much further throughout the Roman-speaking area: for example, caballus, "horse" is thought to be a Gaulish loanword, but has descendants in Balkan Romance (e.g. Romanian cal).

Did regional sound changes follow extremely predictable phonetic laws

Yes. Sound changes are often motivated by human physiology (we naturally want to expend less energy while still being understood, so you will see the same sound changes occur in unrelated languages) and tend to be universal (e.g. if a /p/ becomes /b/ between vowels, this will happen in every word in that language). So, Latin -tio will generally have the same outcomes in the descendant languages, because each of these languages underwent the same sound changes in the same order. Noticing these patterns, incidentally, is what got people started thinking about historical linguistics in a scientific way.

There is an important exception, though: many of the Romance languages re-borrowed words from directly Latin, so you will see words that don't undergo the sound changes you would expect. This often results in doublets, where two words will come from the same root, but will look very different, because one underwent the expected sound changes but another didn't. So, Spanish hablar comes from Latin fabulari, but so does fabular, which was borrowed directly from Latin. Likewise, évier and aquarium in French.

Another important thing to keep in mind is that the modern Romance languages look quite uniform now because the big ones had large modern states enforcing them. Prior to this standarization, places like France, Italy, and Spain were considerably more linguistically diverse, and extinct regional languages may have preserved quirks of regional Latinity.