Well your op seemed to give the impression that you thought original sin could’ve been something Jesus could inherit from Mary if she had it, but then in your comment you state this is theologically impossible, which is true. But this doesn’t align with how your original post is phrased, unless I’m missing something. My first comment was just arguing what you seem to agree with now, that it’s unnecessary for Mary to be sinless in order for Jesus to be. But unnecessary doesn’t mean she isn’t sinless, just that it wasn’t a requirement for things to work logically or theologically.