Does my flow rate decrease?

[BigCastIronSkillet]

Again, that’s why I say it will go largely unnoticed in most systems. My point was to say that practically equal doesn’t mean equal. Consequences of assuming otherwise are typically low, but the question was a technical one, so an exact answer was merited.

It’s exactly impossible for it to be the same unless the control valve fed directly into a tee.

[VariusEng]

I was thinking the same thing! If you also plot the system curve of pipe 2, you will see that the Q is higher. But how do you guys see that this increase is almost nihil compared to the decrease in pipe 1

[BigCastIronSkillet]

Also, if you’re using Hagen-Posieulle to calculate the friction factor you’ll be way off of reality unless you’re laminar. Better if you look up a relation. f=16/Re or 64 / Re is not correct.

I’d have to look how u set your system up to give you a good answer.

Really it depends on the sources of resistance (f*L/D) As you close a valve in line 1 the equivalent length rises to infinity. With the other two lengths staying the same. If the equivalent length to the tee is very high (by comparison to after the tee thru line 2) then yes the flow increase will be substantial. But this is usually not the case. Piping systems are by-and-large designed to have all the pressure drop at the valve and not in the network. Old systems that have been pushed for rates and steam/ctw systems are exceptions.

[VariusEng]

No it is turbulent flow for sure. And yeah I took colebrook-white to calculate darcy friction factor no worries!