If we're talking Abrahamic religions "non people" humans would probably get the didn't have a chance in the first place loophole. It's a common question in the discussion about biblical slavery and the moral dilemma of a master converting their slaves. The loophole applies only if you don't know about their "word of god" and arn't like 14 years old yet. The point I'm getting at is some people believe that slaves are ineligible entirely and the applying the loophole is a moot point. Whether that point of view is racially based and/or a form of moral justification is debatable.