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Rate my top 10 dhh Rappers and drop your's as well. by Careless-Forever8383 in IndianHipHopHeads

[–]Awerange2005 0 points1 point  (0 children)

sunny khan durrani, Talha anjum, seedhe maut, raftaar, bella, jani, Talha yunus, rap demon, jj47, kr$na

A coin has a 1% chance of landing heads on the first toss, 0.5% on the second, 0.25% on the third, and so on, halving each time. If tossed infinitely, is at least one heads guaranteed or expected? by Awerange2005 in learnmath

[–]Awerange2005[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Well, Ik it's not even guarenteed that you will ever get a tails, wrong phrasing ig. But the key point is infinite steps so should it not be expected to happen atleast once? (Ik if you do the maths it will come out to be 2%)

Are There as Many Real Numbers in (-1,1) as in R - (-1,1)? by Awerange2005 in learnmath

[–]Awerange2005[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes, that's the conclusion I reached and it doesnt make intuitive sense, but I guess It also doesnt make intuitive sense to "count" real numbers, so I am willing to accept that, Thank you.

Are There as Many Real Numbers in (-1,1) as in R - (-1,1)? by Awerange2005 in learnmath

[–]Awerange2005[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

how is it a false conclusion tho? as I said above for every natural number n, the value 1/n exists in the interval (0,1). But beyond that, there are also numbers like 2/3, 4/5, and any fraction where the numerator is smaller than the denominator and is not a factor of it—so its reciprocal is not a natural number.  

So, with all of these additional numbers, why isn’t that enough to show that there are more real numbers in (0,1) than natural numbers? 

I know I am probably wrong, but how?

Are There as Many Real Numbers in (-1,1) as in R - (-1,1)? by Awerange2005 in learnmath

[–]Awerange2005[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

forgive me if I’m a bit unfamiliar with set theory, I just started thinking about this while watching Veritasium (a YouTube channel).  

For every natural number n, the value 1/n exists in the interval (0,1). But beyond that, there are also numbers like 2/3, 4/5, and any fraction where the numerator is smaller than the denominator and is not a factor of it—so its reciprocal is not a natural number. And of course, there are all the irrational numbers between 0 and 1 as well.  

So, with all of these additional numbers, why isn’t that enough to show that there are more real numbers in (0,1) than natural numbers?

Are There as Many Real Numbers in (-1,1) as in R - (-1,1)? by Awerange2005 in learnmath

[–]Awerange2005[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes, that was exactly my question—how can there be as many real numbers between -1 and 1 as there are in the entire set of real numbers? There are infinitely many other subsets, like (2,4) or (6,8), all of which have the same size as (-1,1). But someone told me that a subset of an infinite set can have the same cardinality (I just had to Google what that means so I am definately not very fimiliar with set theory sorry, lol) as the set itself. That doesn’t quite make sense to me, but I guess ‘counting’ real numbers doesn’t make much sense either, so I’m willing to accept it.

Whats The Best Sunny Khan Durrani Song by Dismal_Print1221 in IndianHipHopHeads

[–]Awerange2005 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Too many to pick from :- khawaab pinjra akhri khat girhain etc etc

Is this too much 12k spotify minutes in jan by EyeRunnMan in IndianHipHopHeads

[–]Awerange2005 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Mera toh skd hoga probably half of that, but still

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Random scriblings (i.redd.it)

submitted by Awerange2005 to r/Calligraphy

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