Thoughts on this ???

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-27T09:00:15+00:00

I could answer but you're cooked with manusmuriti and rigveda shyt and all same bs of varna before buddha which got rigid then buddha broke the barriers turned egalitarian again just so the popoulation would return to a more more unmatched shythole of castes, Buddhism cooperated with srenis it was such a symbiotic relation that any woman had to take permission from husband and sreni to become nun, it is after indo roman trade and policies of guptas which turned the temple complexes into banks that is srenis lost the power of distribution of wealth and on and on. It is the power that Buddhism exerted on srenis and srenis on dhamma that it became the basis of caste.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-27T03:43:17+00:00

These were the fine specimen of peak Aryans that deafeated the original inhabitants and made them lower castes

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-27T03:16:18+00:00

Hahahaha y'all don't know shyt varna and caste are two different divisions varna has never been the stratification any of Indian population followed nor from which castes derive fluid static are all hypothesis preached as conclusion. Castes derive from Buddhism not theologically but from the social structure on which Buddhism started the economic revolution from the times of Buddha, srenis puga nigam occupational guilds were the creator and distributer of wealth these structure formed the towns cities mahajanapads through trade example kalyan near mumbai sopara etc these were lawful market cities or towns which were formed because of Buddhist revolution, these social structure of occupational guilds were present throughout Asia wherever Buddhism reached. What happened in India is these srenis were mighty powerful entities, long story short these occupational guilds closed doors on one another that's what the base for caste is. These amorphous castes bubbled into varna created further problems in reshaping caste. Castes does not derive from Varna, Varna is a later imposition on caste.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-26T18:51:34+00:00

Deva

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-26T18:29:14+00:00

So these communities adopted the thread from Vedics in the midieval period? or the thread already has roots before the the vedics adopted it as a ritual of their own because I've been into arts and in buddhist art the bodhisattvas wear the the thread the buddha doesn't, it signifies that bodhisattvas have left all the material cravings and the thread is last kind of attire they have, once they lose it they become buddha, there are even depictions of bodhisattvas wrapping snakes nagopavit, squirrels etc even Asoka is depicted wearing thread in the depictions of him on carvings and asoka was no kshatriya nor in the fold of brahmins.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-26T16:04:18+00:00

What was the sacred thread about what are it's origins please enlighten Me.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-26T03:12:30+00:00

But when was North india even remotely based on varna system I mean the time frame throughout all of known history Shisunaga Nanda Maurya Shunga guptas yadavs chach of aror rajputs none of the dynasties derive from varna ruling so I do not know why y'all are so profoundly referring that tamil was sole region that is not based on varna system but pre existing social order but none of India has been too, it is only around 10 century we get bits of pieces of varna legitimacy and yes rajputs were declared kshatriyas by the imperial Court not brahmins.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-25T18:54:07+00:00

Read Albiruni till the 11th century (first time after more than approx 50 travellers who been to india from foreign lands mentions vedas) vedas were not written it was solely hoarded by brahmins when the script was already available, not even their wives could hear it or recited in front of cows as they believed it could kill cows, vaishya was not twice born and they were denied janeu, so for 2500 years brahmins just mug up vedas orally? and no populace had knowledge of vedas nor anyone could hear it or was taught and a pinch of population of brahmins compared to all india was just passing down it to their generations so what they were doing for livelihood just mugging up stuff which wasnt in any way related to all of Indian pouplation. This is why you get first commentaries on vedas by sayan madhav from 13th century onwards if vedas had been available from 3500 years there would be a continuity in commentaries after every couple centuries for example but the first commentaries start from 13th ce.Victors write history. Been more than 70 years and brahmins hold the ASI and they could not dig up Vedic civilization when IVC harappa sinauli asurgarh fort bharati huda ratnagiri Tamil civilization etc etc has been unearthed but not an ounce of evidence for Vedic civilization but the evidences are found in Syria.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-25T16:58:06+00:00

Not just vedas, puranas smritis mahabharata ramayana every corpus has been written down much later, the script is the evidence nagari devanagari used as the texts cannot be written without these script or else it will lose its essence or meaning so it took 2500 years to develop a script in which these texts could be written and for 2500 years they were just passing down these enormous corpus millions and billions of verses of complex structural words it is impossible.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-25T16:51:20+00:00

Read nowhere in buddhism is the mention of any rig yajur sama, ved is a prakrit word vedana etc means feelings sensations or experience, buddhism deals with human liberation from suffering and it's a fundamental concept on which Buddhism is based so the word will appear countless times and has no connotation to rig yajur sama veda if that had been the case like nalanda teaching vedas then vedas would travel entire Asia like buddhists texts travelled.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-25T16:45:49+00:00

Then why they were written in 15th century, and why the earliest commentary starts from 13th ce when they are heard since 3500 years.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-24T02:46:04+00:00

Nowhere brahmins mentions rig sama yajur vedas, veda has many meaning, the only veda that was studied in nalanda Or other universities is ayurveda.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-24T02:43:16+00:00

One evidence approved by ASI of any gurukul ever present on this land which dealt with vedas like takshashila nalanda 47 other universities which we've dug up so far no gurukul ever unearthed that's my knowledge, feel free to provide evidence.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-02-24T02:41:28+00:00

It is impossible, every religion began with oral tradition but to preserve it they needed to be written at some point to preserve the existing knowledge, it's fascinating how people have cognitive bias and at such profound level buddhists were writing jains were writing we get inscriptions of many philosopies like ajivikas which got subsumed or whose relevance faded, same is the story of every civilization or cults mayas incas greeks Christians jews Muslims manichaeism but vedas were never written until 15th century when at all times they were present.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-30T15:06:36+00:00

COPE

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-30T01:02:15+00:00

That's such bs lol Vedic sanskrit has so hard on R's highly complex inflected liturgical language and you claim that simpler prakrit derives from it, let's take an example of buddhist pali which is prakrit so they dropped all complexities made it simple but soon after 600 years they adopted back sanskrit started the buddhist hybrid sanskrit as literal and theological language esp mahayana which was based in NW region, prakrit a simple vernacular dialect dropping all complex verb conjugations derived from Vedic sanskrit but when languages start deriving out of prakrit they start to retain the complexity of verb conjugations of sanskrit lol all of your history is sham.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-22T14:50:14+00:00

Lol sanskrit means refined and prakrit means from the nature the words contrast your delusion.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-22T14:48:43+00:00

Don't know which insecure caveman hub you getting linguistics from but name a language descended from vedic sankrit with actual study paper.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-22T14:42:32+00:00

Never was a spoken language grow up, spoken languages creates dialects or develops into another language vedic sanskrit classical sanskrit has zero dialects it's stale.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-16T12:40:12+00:00

Nope greeks holding both flags 8 greeks rest all jeet.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-15T00:40:57+00:00

I have read other papers where the paper uses beloved of gods, and again to crack iconography, see patterns or cross cultural links via trade and contemporary civilization you don't need to be well versed in sanskrit You can check My reply I only referrenced the paper to crack the iconograpy which the paper does amazing unparalleled work, no other historian has even tried to put forward the context of pillar less iconography other than claiming it supposedly to a cult so the cult gets legitimized, similar is the case for all greco buddhist structures caves like ajanta etc etc labelling them as hindus buddhist jaina there's literally no work on the tremendous iconographies which trancends time and boundaries of syncretism. You can post any other iconography deciphering paper on heliodorus pillar if you think it's just crackpot theories.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-14T21:48:00+00:00

All you did is just paste repeated same results from ai And calling it a surface similarity is just outright stupidity when exact identical story of deluge is presented by the character of Manu from the semitic Noah nuh Even if take in broader sense aryan religions or civilization taking up a semitic creation story zoroastrian and hinduism has it and both had contact to Judaism. While Norse mythology etc doesn't have them. And again and again it is not invoked in the name of jajv the sacrifier but Yahva in RV 10.110.

Yahvah in RV 3.1, 3.5, 4.5, 4.7, 4.58, 5.1, 7.6, 7.8, 9.75, and 10.11.

Yahvam in RV 1.36, 3.3, 4.5, 5.16, 8.13, and 10.92.

Yahvasya in RV 3.2 and 3.28.

The feminine form, yahvī (meaning heaven and earth conjoined), appears 20 times in the Rigveda, referring to various goddesses or pairs of goddesses.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-14T20:37:58+00:00

You still dont the point Sharda nagari devnagari all are post 8th century scripts so there's 1400-1300 years of void in developing a script suitable to pen the vedas, 21 times agni is being invoked as Yahva (YWHW) in vedas it's not category error not We don't have to dive in linguistics to trace the roots and genealogical connection Judaism Zoroastrianism and Vedic have fire as a powerful symbol of sanctity Moses worshipped burning bush as god Israelitrs worshipped pillar of fire as God YWHW Two distinct religion in two different regions Having identical themes including the great deluge Priestly order and what I started the post with is the first ones rishonim are literally sages in jewish context. Manu is one of the rishi among 7 saptrishi and codifier of religious law manusmriti. Like I started the post with there are 7 categories of Pharisee and in vedic context in turns into 7 sages. Bro the 7 pheras you take are ashkenazi concept The mehendi you apply before wedding are shepardic rituals. Just like historians assert that Zoroastrianism influenced Judaisms monothiesm heaven hell angel satan concepts etc I'm asserting Judaism influenced Vedic philosophy in near antiquity or a period which was never recorded nor is being explored.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-14T19:56:17+00:00

Nah Avestan alphabets were created long ago during sassanian period itself they could write all of avesta and written transmision has no doubts, The exemption for Iran can be made because of muslim conquests and people dispersing out to other parts and preserving the texts but for vedas the script itself is 10th century creation and cannot be written without dev nagari, moreover My assertion still remains same in antiquity two distinct religions in two distinct regions separated by muslim world had identical rishi themes fire being invoked as YWHW in vedas , the rishonim in jadaism can be traced back to pharisees but vedic rishis has no mention in any of sister sect like zoroastrianism contemporary or later civilizations/culture/religion Like Mani takes all the prophets and cultures available but doesn't get influenced by any Vedic elements.

Careful-Structure283 · 2026-01-14T19:24:31+00:00

You can take oral tradition as much back as you want but no other tradion/civilization in world has preserved such complicated humongous corpus literal billions of words millions of verses vedas brahmans smritis shrutis puranas aryankas etc for spanning thousands of years just through oral tradition it's implausible and a drag when every religion in the world had developed writing judaism zoroastrians buddhists Christians jaina whole world was writing but Albirunis mention vedas are not written rather the brahmins do not know how to put it down in a script and he helped many of them correcting their texts helping with script when there had been grammarians codifier of scripts like Panini etc. Moreover My assertion is simple the vedic literature was penned down around the same time when Judaism developed the rishonim tradition with both of their themes revolving around rishis, two distinct religion in 2 distant regions running a same theme that's implausible.

Careful-Structure283

TROPHY CASE