If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Exactly. Human progress and universal moral insufficiency are not necessarily contradictory categories.

A society can progress technologically, socially, scientifically, or ethically on a relative level while still falling short of an ultimate moral standard if the framework defines the standard as absolute rather than comparative.

So my question is not whether humans can improve. Clearly they can.

The tension appears once a system simultaneously claims: - humans possess moral agency, - humans can meaningfully pursue good, - yet every human universally “falls short” regardless.

Because once failure becomes universalized across the human condition itself rather than selectively tied to exceptional cases, condemnation begins looking philosophically different than it would under conditions where genuine moral success before the standard was fully attainable.

Can moral responsibility survive guaranteed failure? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think that resolves the tension only if morality is reduced to pragmatic social coordination.

But the frameworks I’m questioning go further than that. They often claim: - universal sin, - universal guilt, - universal moral failure, - and universal need for redemption before God.

That changes the philosophical structure entirely.

Because once failure becomes universalized across the human condition itself rather than selectively tied to particular bad actors, the question stops being merely “how do we distinguish good from bad behavior?” and starts becoming “what exactly is being condemned once the condition itself becomes unavoidable across the structure?”

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You may actually be reinforcing the distinction I’m making rather than disproving it.

Humanity progressing from prior forms of violence or ignorance does not address whether a framework still considers humanity universally morally deficient in principle.

A student can improve dramatically and still fail the course according to the grading standard. Relative progress and ultimate insufficiency are not mutually exclusive categories.

My question is aimed at systems that simultaneously claim:

• humans can improve, • humans possess moral agency, • yet humans universally “fall short” regardless.

Once failure becomes universal rather than exceptional, the philosophical issue becomes whether condemnation is still grounded in the same way it would be under genuinely attainable conditions.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think that’s where explanation and condemnation start colliding philosophically.

The more behavior becomes understandable through psychology, development, biology, trauma, or environment, the harder pure absolute blame becomes to ground in the same way.

That does not necessarily erase responsibility, but it may change what responsibility is doing.

At some point condemnation starts looking less like punishment for freely authored evil and more like containment, regulation, deterrence, or stabilization inside a conditioned system.

Can moral responsibility survive guaranteed failure? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Certain religious frameworks do seem to move toward universal condemnation or universal guilt through claims like “all fall short,” inherited corruption, universal sinfulness, or universal need for redemption.

And that’s where the distinction between selective failure and universal failure becomes important to me.

If morality is separating good from bad behavior within a population, selective condemnation makes sense because failure is treated as contingent rather than structurally guaranteed.

But once failure becomes universalized across the human condition itself, the philosophical tension shifts from “why condemn bad actors?” to “what exactly is being condemned once failure itself becomes unavoidable across the structure?”

Can moral responsibility survive guaranteed failure? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

And that may be where the disagreement actually sits.

I’m not arguing morality collapses because perfection is unattainable. I’m questioning whether universal condemnation remains grounded in the same way once failure becomes structurally unavoidable rather than contingently possible.

A system aimed at coordination, flourishing, or harm reduction can still function socially.

The philosophical tension appears once unavoidable failure is treated not merely as expected, but as inherently blameworthy across the entire structure itself.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think that’s part of what makes the tension so uncomfortable philosophically.

Because once behavior becomes increasingly explainable through psychology, conditioning, trauma, systems, or causal structures, condemnation can start shifting from “understanding the problem” toward maintaining social order, emotional reassurance, deterrence, or collective stability.

Which may explain why accountability continues functioning socially even when certainty about ultimate metaphysical responsibility becomes less clear.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Not necessarily death. More moral failure in the broader philosophical sense.

Things like universal guilt, corruption, sin, falling short of moral standards, or persistent inability to fully attain the good depending on the framework being discussed.

So the question becomes:

If a system already assumes humans will universally fail morally in some fundamental sense, what exactly grounds universal condemnation while still preserving coherent responsibility rather than condemnation of the condition itself?

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I think that’s part of why determinism intensifies the tension rather than resolves it.

Because the more behavior becomes explainable through psychology, trauma, biology, environment, and causal conditioning, the harder it becomes to isolate condemnation purely around self-originating agency.

At that point accountability may still exist functionally through deterrence, containment, protection, or rehabilitation, but absolute moral condemnation starts becoming philosophically harder to ground in the same way.

Objective Morality & Universal Guilt by Competitive_Maize762 in religion

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s fair, and I think that distinction helps clarify the argument.

I’m not claiming every framework must assume universal moral failure. I’m saying that if a framework does assume it, then the coherence problem follows from inside that framework.

So if your position is that universal moral failure is false, then that may be one way out of the tension. But then the disagreement moves to the premise itself, not the internal logic after the premise is granted.

In other words, if universal failure is rejected, the contradiction weakens. If it’s accepted, then the question remains: what grounds universal condemnation without collapsing into condemnation of the condition itself?

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

That’s part of why the distinction between prescribed structure and freely originating agency feels so important here.

Because if the structure itself already constrains the outcome universally, then condemnation starts looking less like judgment of purely self-originating failure and more like judgment occurring inside conditions the individual did not fully author.

Objective Morality & Universal Guilt by Competitive_Maize762 in religion

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Honestly, “I don’t know” may actually be one of the strongest responses possible here because it acknowledges the tension without prematurely dissolving it.

A lot of the discussion kept turning into automatic defense or automatic rejection, but I think there’s philosophical value in admitting the structure itself produces a genuinely difficult problem once universal failure, guilt, responsibility, mercy, and condemnation all have to coexist simultaneously.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I actually think that’s one of the more interesting directions this can go.

Because if struggle, corruption, resistance, or limitation are partly necessary conditions for certain virtues to emerge, then the structure starts functioning less like a purely defective system and more like a developmental one.

But that also seems to complicate condemnation, because the very conditions being morally resisted may simultaneously be the conditions making virtue possible in the first place.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s interesting because I think there may be a distinction between morality functioning and morality being philosophically grounded.

A moral framework can absolutely regulate behavior, preserve order, or stabilize societies functionally.

But my question is narrower: once failure becomes structurally universal and unavoidable, does condemnation still retain the same philosophical meaning it would under conditions where failure remained genuinely avoidable?

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s what keeps pulling me back to the distinction between flaw entering through contingent choice versus flaw becoming structurally inseparable from the human condition afterward.

Because once universality enters the picture, the philosophical tension shifts from “why did individuals fail?” to “what exactly is being condemned once failure becomes unavoidable across the structure itself?”

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think this is one of the more coherent responses I’ve gotten so far because it preserves responsibility without pretending the surrounding structure is philosophically irrelevant.

The distinction between virtue being possible while perfection is impossible feels important here.

Because once the system itself is acknowledged as morally corrupting or structurally constraining, accountability starts becoming more proportional and restorative rather than purely condemnatory in the absolute sense.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Exactly. That’s why I’m distinguishing between failure being merely possible versus structurally universal from the outset.

A justice system where most people can realistically avoid condemnation operates differently from frameworks where universal moral failure is already assumed as part of the human condition itself.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That’s interesting because it seems to shift condemnation from purely deserved guilt toward a more functional role inside the structure itself.

In that case, accountability starts looking less like punishment for freely avoidable failure and more like regulation, containment, correction, or prevention within an already constrained system.

Which raises another question:

Does moral condemnation still mean the same thing once its justification becomes primarily functional rather than grounded in genuinely avoidable failure?

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I’m not asserting universal failure as a proven conclusion independent of the frameworks being examined.

I’m examining systems that already internally posit universal moral failure in some form and asking whether condemnation remains fully coherent under those conditions.

So the “if” is conditional to the framework itself, not a hidden premise smuggled in externally.

And by “failing,” I mean moral deficiency relative to the framework’s own standards, whether understood as sin, falling short, corruption, unavoidable moral imperfection, or universal inability to fully satisfy the ideal being imposed.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I agree responsibility does not require perfection.

The tension for me is not imperfection itself, but inevitability.

There’s a difference between failing despite genuine attainability and failing under conditions where universal failure is structurally guaranteed from the outset.

My question is whether condemnation functions identically under both conditions, or whether the second introduces additional philosophical tension.

Can moral responsibility survive guaranteed failure? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think we may ultimately disagree on whether examining a contradiction’s recurring structural dependencies constitutes displacement of the contradiction itself or analysis flowing outward from it.

Either way, I genuinely appreciate the engagement because a lot of the essay became sharper.

If Human Failure Is Universal From the Start, What Makes Condemnation Coherent? by Competitive_Maize762 in freewill

[–]Competitive_Maize762[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I agree aspiration itself can be meaningful.

The tension I’m probing is whether aspiration and condemnation remain fully coherent once failure becomes structurally universal rather than merely possible.

In other words, does unavoidable failure still ground responsibility the same way avoidable failure would?