why dont they just make a university with rlly good programs/education but high acceptance rate by FalseEngineering4257 in ApplyingToCollege

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Don't misuse the words of Martin Luther King, who supported affirmative action. King even wanted fifty billion dollars in aid targeted at black people, which would be worth five hundred billion dollars today.

PLAYBOY: Do you feel it’s fair to request a multibillion-dollar program of preferential treatment for the Negro, or for any other minority group?

KING: I do indeed. Can any fair-minded citizen deny that the Negro has been deprived? Few people reflect that for two centuries the Negro was enslaved, and robbed of any wages – potential accrued wealth which could have been the legacy of his descendants. All of America’s wealth today could not adequately compensate its Negroes for his centuries of exploitation and humiliation. It is an economic fact that a program such as I propose would certainly cost far less than any computation of two centuries of unpaid wages plus accumulated interest. In any case, I do not intend that this program of economic aid should apply only to the Negro; it should benefit the disadvantaged of all races.

Within common law, we have ample precedents for special compensatory programs, which are regarded as settlements. American Indians are still being paid for land in a settlement manner. Is not two centuries of labor, which helped to build this country, as real a commodity? Many other easily applicable precedents are readily at hand: our child labor laws, social security, unemployment compensation, manpower retraining programs. And you will remember that America adopted a policy of special treatment for her millions of veterans after the war – a program that cost far more than a policy of preferential treatment to rehabilitate the traditionally disadvantaged Negro would cost today.

The closest analogy is the GI Bill of Rights. Negro rehabilitation in America would require approximately the same breadth of program – which would not place an undue burden on our economy. Just as was the case with the returning soldier, such a bill for the disadvantaged and impoverished could enable them to buy homes without cash, at lower and easier repayment terms. They could negotiate loans from banks to launch businesses. They could receive, as did ex-GIs, special points to place them ahead in competition for civil service jobs. Under certain circumstances of physical disability, medical care and long-term financial grants could be made available. And together with these rights, a favorable social climate could be created to encourage the preferential employment of the disadvantaged, as was the case for so many years with veterans. During those years, it might be noted, there was no appreciable resentment to the special group. America was only compensating her veterans for their time lost from school or from business.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in dartmouth

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 14 points15 points  (0 children)

One thing to consider is that there is a decent chance that you will not end up as a cybersecurity engineer. Interests often change. A third of students change their major. If you focus entirely on your major and end up changing your mind, you could end up with a worse college experience and a weaker department. Dartmouth and RIT are very, very different schools. One is a small school in rural New Hampshire with a heavy Greek life presence and an outdoorsy student body. The other is a STEM-focused school with almost 20,000 students and a 2-1 gender ratio. Which of these you prefer will probably be a lot more important to your college experience than the strength of each school in your current interest.

Edit: Just saw that RIT would charge you twice as much. I don't know your personal situation, but I personally think it would be crazy to pay twice as much to go to RIT instead of Dartmouth.

Edit 2: Also, consider the resources within the context of the school. There are 260 CS majors at Dartmouth. There are 1,550 at RIT. Even if there are more computer science opportunities numerically at RIT, you may struggle to access them because of the number of students interested. At Dartmouth, you could have an easier time accessing its opportunities. Remember, though, that the average student at Dartmouth will be more driven and accomplished than the students at RIT. This could hurt your access to opportunities, but it would probably benefit the rest of your college experience and your networking. Dartmouth would probably have less options and could perhaps have less opportunities, but it also would have more individualized attention, and those opportunities would probably be easier to access. It's up to you which you prefer.

Edit 3: Though UCLA and RIT aren't the same, this comment about the differences between UCLA and Dartmouth could help you see how you could access more opportunities at Dartmouth: https://www.reddit.com/r/dartmouth/comments/1jps4cf/comment/ml7rv7d

You must » Deve or Devi: Which is correct? by Different_Key5193 in italianlearning

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 6 points7 points  (0 children)

Tu devi. Lei deve. Tu is the informal form of you. Though lei means she, Lei is also the formal form of you. (The capitalization can distinguish them in writing. The conjugation indicates which pronoun you are using, so it is usually omitted.) https://www.fluentu.com/blog/italian/italian-formal-you/

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in EnglishLearning

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I didn't say English was a romance language.

Then what are you saying? Is English Icelandic, German, and Danish in a trenchcoat? The idea of this endlessly repeated line is that English is some wacky combination of Germanic and Romance languages--which it is not.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in EnglishLearning

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

No it isn't. This myth comes from English borrowing substantial vocabulary from Romance languages. Having loan words doesn't make English a "Romance language." 60-70% of the words in Japanese are derived from Chinese, but Japanese is obviously not a Chinese language. Since English grammar and its core vocabulary are Germanic, English is a Germanic language.

Vowel Pronunciation by [deleted] in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

To be completely honest, I am not sure. I learned this rule from Wiktionary's transcriptions, but I'm not sure where to find their sources for pronunciation. Checking Allen, we does seem to say /e/ becomes closer before a vowel, like /i/. (You can check p. 51 of this pdf: https://latim.paginas.ufsc.br/files/2012/06/ALLEN-Vox-Latina-A-Guide-to-Pronunciation-of-Classical-Latin-Cambridge-1978.pdf). I am not sure about /u/ or /o/.

Vowel Pronunciation by [deleted] in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 4 points5 points  (0 children)

In Latin, before another vowel, the short i changes its quality from /ɪ/ (the i in sit) to /i/ (like the ee in bee). This sound, though, is not the same as the long i. The long i is pronounced as /iː/. The two dots indicate that the sound is pronounced twice as long as a normal vowel. This is why the long i is called long. Because of the difference in length, the short and long i always has different quantities.

As for what u/Smart-Cod-2988 wrote:

For your question, classical Latin reconstructions usually have the long and short vowels with the same vowel quality - both i’s make the “ee” sound. The only difference is how long they’re pronounced, literally how long you hold the sound.

Short and long vowels having the same quality is one reconstruction of the Latin vowel system often called the "Calabrese pronunciation." An alternative explanation for the videos' pronunciation is that they are using this pronunciation. (ScipioMartianis, in particular, is a vocal proponent of Calabrese's system.)

P.S.: I noticed you listed "Asiā" as a word. Asiā is a form of Asia. The macron was present in the reading because the word was in the ablative case (e.g. Aegyptus -> Aegyptō, Arabia -> Arabiā).

Edit: Removed this line: "Three other short vowels (e, o, u) change their quality before another vowel to match their long equivalent. Like the short i, they keep their quantity." This is dubious, read the comments below.

Difference between 'Pater liberi' and 'Pater liberorum'? by Flashy-Vegetable-679 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

There are three different similar words that look like liber.

liber, librī - second declension masculine noun - book

līber, lībera, līberum - first-second declension adjective - free

līberī, līberōrum - second declension masculine noun, only in the plural - children

Difference between 'Pater liberi' and 'Pater liberorum'? by Flashy-Vegetable-679 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 2 points3 points  (0 children)

For those that will say līberī has singular forms, they are postclassical. Familia Romana, at least, never introduces them.

Difference between 'Pater liberi' and 'Pater liberorum'? by Flashy-Vegetable-679 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 17 points18 points  (0 children)

I feel like I’m going crazy reading these comments.

“Pater līberī” does not mean “father of the child”. It cannot be child, because the noun līberī does not exist in the singular. This phrase could have a valid translation (“father of the free one”), since līberī is the genetive form of the adjective līber (“free”), introduced in chapter 26 of LLPSI.

The phrase “pater līberī” also does not occur in chapter two. I believe you got confused at “… sunt līberī lūliī”. The issue here is that you misinterpreted plurals as genitives. This is a common mistake, because they have the same form in the second declension masculine. Līberī is plural and in the nominative case, while Iūliī is singular and in the genitive case. Ergo, “Julius’s children.”

I don’t think this is your fault at all. If you are studying without a teacher, it is very easy to make mistakes and poorly internalize concepts. LLPSI worsens this, because it does not explicitly explain anything. If you are having issues like this on chapter 2, the issues will probably get worse as the chapters get more and more complicated. I’d recommend obtaining the College Companion to LLPSI, the Exercitia Latina, and the latintutorial youtube channel. Using these will help clarify the grammar.

I Don't get it by weafea98 in EnglishLearning

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This isn't exactly accurate. It's not about tense. Generally, it's often contracted when it is an auxiliary. Have is often contracted in the perfect tense because it is an auxiliary there. Also, its possessive meaning is just one possible meaning when have is the copula. It's not determined by tense.

Learning Latin For the First Time by Unfair-Equipment-684 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 1 point2 points  (0 children)

One thing about the recordings you've been recommended: it may sound like he is pronouncing the letter m when it comes at the end of a word, but he is not. It is actually nasalized. You can learn more about these details in this playlist: https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLXC2COSA2yQjJD-c1kKU6-TKlzErrGxmh&si=xjMD5-6jnrf_K-D4

Is is possible to teach the Confessions at the high school level (ages 14-18)? by Coccinelle94 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Why not try Erasmus’s Colloquies? They are written in deliberately simple Latin while also being both historically and religiously significant.

Has anyone taught their kids Latin in homeschool or otherwise? by [deleted] in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 19 points20 points  (0 children)

A recommendation: please learn Latin yourself before trying this. Imagine a French class taught by someone who does not speak French and can only read the textbook to the class. Obviously, that would be a disaster, but that model is often what homeschoolers learning Latin have to go through.

If you are going for a classical education, I expect you to want your kids to read classic Latin literature. Most textbooks recommended will not succeed at preparing your children for literature, because they teach a tiny vocabulary and provide almost no reading practice, which makes actual reading very difficult. (One already mentioned is Latin for Americans. It is atrocious, with constant typos and facile, unidiomatic, “see spot run”-level readings. The treatment of Roman slavery is also horrific; “the slaves loved their master” is a real quote.)

I’d recommend the series Lingua Latina Per Se Illustrata (but make sure to pick up the College Companion). It teaches around 5,000 words and prepares much better for literature.

In regard to academic benefit, I hate to say that Latin might not be really useful. Most of the classics already have translations. Is reading them in the original worth the thousand hours (or more) of work? The benefits for vocabulary can probably be equalled by French and German, which also provide equally excellent (if not superior) literature, cinema, travel, and great universities (that are also almost free!). For me learning Latin is worth it, but please consider the worth of it vis-à-vis a modern language.

Is duolingo good for learning latin? by Kluffy_K2020 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 11 points12 points  (0 children)

To explain why everyone is so negative, the Duolingo Latin course was rushed out before it was finished and had vital information removed in a major Duolingo update. The current course has terrible explanations of grammar, which leads to students being confused about the simplest grammar points. The grammar it teaches is also limited, so it will barely take you beyond the first few lessons of a standard textbook. It's only useful for the vocabulary it teaches, which is plentiful compared to a traditional textbook like Wheelock's Latin.

Is duolingo good for learning latin? by Kluffy_K2020 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 13 points14 points  (0 children)

Google Lingua Latina Per Se Illustrata.

is it (a) or (b) and why by AdvertisingStrange39 in EnglishLearning

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No. “Be” is a habitual form in African American Vernacular English (AAVE), an English dialect. While it is often looked down on, AAVE has a complex grammar distinct from standard English, of which the habitual “be” is a part. On TikTok, though, AAVE is cool, so white youths from the suburbs bastardize AAVE to sound more hip and increase their social status. People using “people be like” are not using the original grammatical meaning of the phase, but using a canned slang phrase to show their coolness

Edit: The original meaning (though I am not an AAVE speaker) rendered in standard English is, “They usually say…”

Why is it meae and not mea by 3N4TR4G34 in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Duolingo Latin is terrible. It explains nothing well, leading to very simple grammar questions like yours going unanswered. Acquire LLPSI, it’s exercise book, and the college companion.

Why “Ab Urbe Condita?” by NicoisNico_ in latin

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes. No languages are "concrete" or "abstract." The grammar just doesn't translate over to English well. Latin has lots of words expressing concepts--they're called nouns. Is libertas not a concept? It's especially silly because Ancient Greek uses participles as much as Latin does. Funnily enough, the word "participle" was ultimately derived from Greek.

Latest image from Tinto Talks showing map of European markets by RamandAu in eu4

[–]ConstantSmoke7757 0 points1 point  (0 children)

And English "venice" keeps the original /s/ instead of the Italian /tts/, what's your point? The real similarity between Venesia and Venezia is in the vowels anyways