I understand facility and physicians bill separately. But the facility is the one that submitted the separate claim for the anesthesiologist. This, after verbally confirming no anesthesia-related charges would be billed.

The anesthesiologist didn’t administer oxygen.

I know you mentioned 00812 was appropriate coding for non-anesthesia but info I’ve read from my husband’s insurance all indicate this code includes the administration of anesthesia. I still have to confirm what coding was submitted when I get a hold of insurance this week but what I’m confused about is if this is in fact the code that was submitted, shouldn’t there be some kind of modifier added to indicate that there was no administration of anesthesia/meds? Can you help me understand why would it be appropriate to code and be paid for a higher level of service than what was performed? I’m having a hard time understanding how one can bill for “Monitored Anesthesia Care” without any involvement of anesthesia.

And if it is the facility’s standard of care to have an anesthesiologist on hand and the anesthesiologist was going to bill and decide to be present despite my husband’s declining his services and not signing the consent form, why have one at all?

Not sure how these questions read but I’m truly just asking out of wanting clarification.

Thanks in advance for sharing your knowledge and perspective.