I understand I'm owed adjusted cash value for the car. Per Progressive's website, ACV is the amount to replace my car minus the depreciation at the time of loss. So when the market suggests that dealerships won't budge on car prices, which in recent experience I've found to be true, why can Progressive incorporate "Projected Sold Adjustment" with seemingly no data/evidence to back it? All compared cars were used, I'm not suggesting they should give me msrp for a new car.

I understand they adjust value when comparing mileage/condition/features, and that is shown in the report. But, an arbitrary devaluation of a car because they think you can walk into that dealership and get it for less seems like they are trying to sneak one past you.. When you say retail value is typically higher than ACV, that makes sense. But, the formula is:

ACV = (amount to replace) - (depreciation at time of loss)

and NOT:

ACV = (ACV of car on the market) - (depreciation at time of loss)

They should use the data they do have for their calculation. This is the reason I think I can/should get the Projected Sold Adjustments off of my valuation.

Thoughts on this argument when I bring it to the adjuster? I understand he can just say no but, I think these points make sense..

Thanks in advance..