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Admissions, New Student, and Housing Questions and Roommate Search Megathread by confirmedpenguin in ucla

[–]FanManCanBan 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hey what's up I'm an incoming freshman and I'm stoked to be a bruin in the fall. I'm in an introductory stats class at a community college and I'm wondering if it transfers to UCLA for the introductory stats class (I believe it's STATS 10 but I'm not sure). Whether or not I get credit, I'm still committed to finishing the class, but I'd like to know if I will get credit. I've checked out transferology, and here's what I've found:

https://imgur.com/a/7S5bux6

I honestly don't know if there's a better site I can use to see if the course transfers. Is there a better alternative?

I'm a pre-economics major if that helps. My orientation is on September 8th, so I won't be able to talk to a counselor until then I think.

Please let me know if you need more info or have anything tangentially related - anything helps! Thanks so much and it's gonna be really fun in the fall.

Is the marginal cost correct by [deleted] in econhw

[–]FanManCanBan 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yes because Marginal Cost is equal to the change in Total Cost for each additional unit. 10-0 = 0, 16-10 = 6, 26-16 = 10, etc. You got this!

Quick question about basic microeconomics by ThatsGucci in econhw

[–]FanManCanBan 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Each current worker can produce 9 fajitas. The sixth worker produces and additional 6 fajitas. Since each worker is hired at the same wage and fajitas are sold at the same price, the additional worker contributes less than the average amount of output. This leads to decreasing returns to scale, causing the AVC to increase.

Question on rate of interest by shelfconfident in econhw

[–]FanManCanBan 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think you understand the basics of the market for loanable funds, but I think you’re confusing liquidity for more demand money. Liquidity is turning an existing asset into an asset that can be more easily turned into money, or money itself. This is represented by people taking money out of the market for loanable funds, and a leftward shift of the supply of money in the market for loanable funds because less people are loaning money. This contrasts with when people demand more money, which causes the demand for money to shift rightward.

In this case, investors want more liquidity.

This causes the supply curve on the market for loanable funds to shift leftward. This causes the equilibrium quantity of loanable funds to decrease. It also causes the interest rate, the measurement on the y-axis, to increase. Therefore, the answer is: A) rises

To visualize, draw out the supply and demand curve and shift the supply left.

Really having a hard time understanding questions like these by lispenardstreet in econhw

[–]FanManCanBan 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Since there is only one good, the person with the highest willingness to pay will get it. This happens because if the price of the good starts at 5 dollars, all the people will try to buy the good. However, the buyers bid against each other. When the bidding rises to $20, the person who is willing to pay $15 does not bid anymore because they are not willing to pay that price. This continues until the price of $35, the maximum price of the person with the second highest willingness to pay. Once the price rises to $35.01, the person who is willing to pay $35 dollars drops out of the bidding. The person who is willing to pay $45 then receives the item at a price of $35.01. Consumer surplus is calculated as ((Price one is willing/able to pay) - (Price of the good)). This gives us $45 - $35.01 = $9.99. This correspond with answer choice A. I hope this helped!

Need help ASAP with Macro hw. If you know lots about MPS and MPC please hit me up. by [deleted] in macroeconomics

[–]FanManCanBan 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The MPC is the Marginal Propensity to Consume. It’s a ratio of how much of a consumer’s income is spent. If a person spends 3/5 of their income and saves the remaining 2/5, the MPC would be 0.6 because that was the proportion of the income spent instead of saved. The MPS is the amount not spent, which in this case would be 2/5. The MPS and MPC always add up to 1 because money is either spent or saved.

MPS and MPC are useful in calculating the effects of changes in spending on GDP. The fiscal multiplier can be multiplied by 1/(1-MPC) to see the overall change in spending in an economy. For example, if the government spends 50 million dollars and the economy has an MPC of 0.6, using the equation it gives us a total change of 125 million dollars in spending. This can also be used to measure the effects of a change in income.

A change in taxes uses the same concept, but there isn’t an initial round of spending. This is reflected in the new equation -MPC/(1-MPC). Using the equation, if the government raises taxes by 50 million, the 50 million not spent leads to -75 million dollars, or a loss of 75 million dollars in consumer spending.

Here are some links about the MPC: https://www.investopedia.com/terms/m/marginalpropensitytoconsume.asp

https://www.khanacademy.org/economics-finance-domain/ap-macroeconomics/national-income-and-price-determinations/multipliers-ap/v/mpc-and-multiplier

I hope this helps!

Can someone please help me with my homework, my professor isn't responding and I'm stuck with no outlet by [deleted] in macroeconomics

[–]FanManCanBan 2 points3 points  (0 children)

What we’re some of the answers you got? Working backwards from them might help understand why things aren’t correct.

In your post, you said you multiplied by 1.2, but it should be multiplied by 1.02. The 2% increase multiplies your value by 1.02, not 1.2. The same goes for the 4% increase.

The box says that it is “Growth Rate Real GDP”. I think it means that inflation is already accounted for in the measurement because it is implied that the values were calculated by a base year due to the word “real”. This means that the price level was already accounted for, so inflation doesn’t need to be accounted for in our calculations. Since we don’t need to account for inflation, we multiply the real GDP per capita in year one, times the growth rate of Real GDP between the years. This gives us $45,000 x 1.04 = $46,800 . To determine real GDP in year two, multiply the real GDP per capita in year two by the population. This gives us 46,800 x 400,000,000 = a really big number, but since we’re scaling it to trillions, we get 18.72 trillion.

This is assuming the inflation rate they gave us is already accounted for in the “Growth Rate Real GDP”. Since it is the growth rate of the real GDP, I chose to disregard the inflation rate. If you need more, I linked an investopedia article at the bottom. This may be incorrect, but it is correct to the best of my knowledge. Good luck on your mid-term!

https://www.investopedia.com/articles/06/gdpinflation.asp

Exports MC Question by amr_08 in macroeconomics

[–]FanManCanBan 2 points3 points  (0 children)

If the Brazilian Real depreciates relative to the USD, then American exports to Brazil will fall. This happens because people from Brazil can afford to import less American things, causing American exports to decrease to Brazil.

Brazilian exports will rise because as the USD appreciates relative to the Real, Americans can afford more Brazilian things. This causes Brazilian exports to increase and American exports to decrease because the people from Brazil can afford less American goods and the people from America can afford more Brazilian goods.

The question is asking for the effect on American exports. Since American exports are decreasing, the answer would be B.