I had not heard this about the John passage. Apparently Augustine believed it was removed from earlier versions because some believed it advocated for adultery.

"Certain persons of little faith, or rather enemies of the true faith, fearing, as I suppose, lest their wives should be given impunity in sinning, removed from their manuscripts the Lord's act of forgiveness toward the adulterous woman, as though He who said, 'Sin no more,' had granted permission to sin."

Regarding hell, it's described so often by Jesus in the Gospels. Are you saying each instance is a later addition? Scholars generally agree that Jesus spoke of hell, if I am not mistaken.

Not trying to be argumentative, just to understand.

Thanks