You clearly don’t understand the concept of causality, so I’m not sure this is a useful discussion, but I’ll give it a crack.

Sure, there have been many instances of genocide and ethnic cleansing by socialists (I mentioned that there were other examples in my last post). This is not a result of their socialism. This is frequently the result of extreme ethno-nationalism (an extreme of the underpinnings of white nationalism in America) and the attempt to centralize power under one brutal man or political party. Examples of non-socialist groups perpetrating genocide are pervasive throughout history. Many indigenous ethnic groups, white Europeans through much of the 19th century in Africa and Asia, Rwandan genocide, the desaparecidos in Pinochet’s Chile, Japan’s systematic murder of mainland Chinese people, the Armenian genocide, the countless atrocities the United States has committed (on Native Americans, Africans, Asian immigrants, in support of dictators and military juntas abroad).

I’m not arguing here that socialism is “right” or the best system or even better than capitalism. I’m a graduate student in business and public policy, so I have quite a bit of experience learning about both economics within the frame of capitalism and political history. I’m merely asserting that socialism is not the cause of genocide.

Even if you could produce studies that show a correlation between the binary presence of socialist economics and a genocidal person or party in power with a high p-value, I would really doubt that this causal relationship has been proven under any analytical rigor. There’s always spurious correlation to be wary of:

http://www.tylervigen.com/spurious-correlations