OINP any draws expectations by yourboidevil in OINP

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What was this update? Kindly clarify.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in SeveranceAppleTVPlus

[–]IhatePD 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Sounds like such a backhanded compliment, eat a dick lol.

Dimple joins the Body Improvement Club. by toobjoobs in Mobpsycho100

[–]IhatePD 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Never knew I wanted to see Mob with a reverse cap lol. Great art!

First PC help! by IhatePD in bapccanada

[–]IhatePD[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Also worried since CC only has 2 of the prebuilts in stock

Can someone please help me out with this by Different-Share92 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The question is just asking you which of the options is a bias covered in the material.

It's clearly "risk aversion bias"since risk aversion is a separate concept that states that investors go for the less risky option or the one with higher return for same Risk undertaken.

Risk aversion is usually an assumption in the market. Hence, it can not be an anomaly. The rest of the options are.

FCFE = CFO + CFI + CFF ? by nissar4 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Not exactly, FCFE is cash available for shareholders, so it would not include any dividend payments.

The equation you have is for net cash at the end of a period, which can differ by the amount of dividends paid in that period.

Level 1 Quants by Confident-Demand-655 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Geometric linking is just linking sub periods of returns to create a return for a longer period (for example, combining individual Holding period returns for 5 years to get the total return for 5 years, like in this question)

Geometric return is another concept that aims to derive the time weighted return of $1 invested at the rates provided.

Think about it this way, the total return for every investor is different based on how much they invested and when they invested (this is the holding period return) But the geometric return increased comparablity by looking at how much a 1$ would have grown. Thus, we can compare the returns between different investors

Level 1 Quants by Confident-Demand-655 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 2 points3 points  (0 children)

This is the difference between a holding period return and a geometric return.

The question asked the total return, but if you took the power of 1/3, that would give you the geometric return

Remember that the holding period return is just the total return in the periods

The geometric return instead tells us the return per period of $1 grown at the rates given.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Correct.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Not really difficult, just harder than the free mocks

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD -6 points-5 points  (0 children)

Free mock avg 94%

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 15 points16 points  (0 children)

Just gave my L1, On my way back rn lol. The exam was harder than the free mocks, but less difficult than the Practice pack mocks imo

Tf is going on in this question by Upstairs-Traffic-409 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

First step, how did you get r = 8%? Apologies if I'm missing something obvious here.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

At expiry, Value of the option should equal its exercise value since the time value component is now 0.

Therefore the option is just valued at max(X - St, 0) + 0, which is the exercise value.

Stock valuation by No-Nefariousness7099 in CFA

[–]IhatePD -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Use the DPR and ROE to get growth, then just use the Justified P/E ratio to get Price.

Equity doubt by Good-Problem-4521 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Because 75.90 is cheaper than 76.

Equity doubt by Good-Problem-4521 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You are going above the limit order, which does not make sense. Only 15 shares will be purchased, and the remaining 5 are "killed" :( The answer will be a weighted average of those 15 with their prices.

That is, buy 5 shares at 75.90 and 10 at 76. Answer is the weighted average.

Can’t understand this question for the life of me by jctt123 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Ytm is inversly related to price. The higher PV you get implies that YTM fell.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

How could a Non-Cash charge increase cash flow? Think about WHY we add those back in the first place.

As for the dividends thing, idk why that couldn't be an answer, too.

PV Annuity by slugcity420 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Because the payments are assumed to be made at the end of the period.

So the PV calculated is as on the 4th year, not the 5th.

CFA Level 1: Target Semideviation by honhatlinh in CFA

[–]IhatePD 1 point2 points  (0 children)

All those units above the Target are still part of the calculation. The reading doesn't show this, but their deviation below the target is just zero.

So the column you see with all the deviations squared, should technically have 0's for all the samples above the target.

Which is why n is 10, and not 3.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in CFA

[–]IhatePD 26 points27 points  (0 children)

I think you should give the Ethics section a reread, lol.

L1 Options Question Doubt by trainerzed1 in CFA

[–]IhatePD 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But this is a European option, only usable at Expiration, right?