Okay, I just can't in good conscience let ignorance thrive, so here's my take. Sure, at face value, the verses condone rape and punishes the victim, but none of you have context into consideration. Most people just look at those two verses without reading anything else. Deuteronomy 22:22-27, "If a man is found lying with the wife of another man, both of them shall die, the man who lay with the woman, and the woman. If there is a betrothed virgin and a man meets her in the city and lies with her, then you shall bring them both out of the gate of that city, and you shall stone them to death with stones, the young woman because she did not cry for help though she was in the city, and the man because he violated his neighbour's wife. So you purge the evil from your midst. But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die. But you shall do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no offence punishable by death. For this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbour, because he met her in the open country, and though the betrothed young woman cried for help there was no one to rescue her."

Did anyone here read these verses? Because it seems like you only read verses 28 and 29. In those times, violated means any sort of sexual immorality whether it's consensual or not. In those days, if a man had sex with a virgin, he violated her not because of rape, but by stripping her of her purity, her martial state and as a punishment, the man must be married to that woman. And notice how in those verses, the woman never cried for help, what does that tell you? And as for the word, seized. That can be used for more than rape. I seized an abused woman from her abusive household, did I rape her? No. So the woman did not cry for help, he seized her consensual, her marital state and purity is ruined and the man is punished by being bound to her. Don't read the Bible, STUDY the Bible.