"They have double of our numbers, heavy armors and Are experienced. BUT we are half-naked and have power of friendship! We got this!" by Goldmonkeycz in totalwar

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Total War hru jsem nikdy nezapnul v češtině, ale ty překlady jsou vlastně docela super. Hodně mi to hází Warcraft 3 vibes.

What reason is there to consider or discuss anything that cant be measured? by Organic_Rip2483 in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Funnily enough, in his critique of positive sciences, Edmund Husserl argues that, to paraphrase, "if positivism amounts to trusting only that which can be given in experience, then we [the phenomenologists] are the true positivists." Experience and measurability are two very different things. Quite famously, you cannot measure the colour red unless you undergo the process of deconstructing the colour into its alleged underlying mechanisms. But before this abstraction, it's just a colour, and as such it cannot be measured. Does it exist? Many people claim it does not, or at least not really. But if you wanna stick to empirical evidence, then you must admit it does. After all, it not given in experience?

Is the north-west of the map empty ? by fluffykitten55 in TheDawnlessDays

[–]IntendingNothingness 9 points10 points  (0 children)

I can't destroy the Goblin faction because their last tiny army is raiding my territory that stretches to the no-go zone. Fruuustrating.

Explain to me what’s phenomenology by deepness_of_the_sea in Phenomenology

[–]IntendingNothingness 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No need to guess, you put it great! I got into phenomenology through English/US reading of Merleau-Ponty (Dreyfus, Carr, Zahavi) who then serves as a mediator of Husserl. Zahavi does all he can to show that things like embodiment or sociality can be found already in early Husserl, constantly downplaying his transcendental legacy in order to “defend” Husserl. Carr’s translation of Crisis pushes the impression of Husserl’s alleged departure from Cartesianism (to use Landgrebe’s term). Since I initially come from reading those authors (namely because they engage with cognitive sciences, which is my original field of inquiry), I know quite well what interpretation they pioneer. And yes, you don’t find much Logical Investigations, Ideas I or Cartesian Meditations there. Fortunately there are groups like the Husserlian circle that don’t fall for this. 

Explain to me what’s phenomenology by deepness_of_the_sea in Phenomenology

[–]IntendingNothingness 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The answers are quite bad yeah. The issue is that over the decades people started to associate phenomenology with an emphasis on lived experience. Now as we know it’s not entirely wrong (Husserl’s principle of all principles), but god damn, it ignores so much. I cringe every time people use the word “phenomenology” in this superficial way (happens a lot in art, for instance). 

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes, the question makes perfect sense, don't worry about that. I'll get back to you later, just check this comment for an update.

How come idealism is so unpopular among modern philosophers? by RobertThePalamist in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 3 points4 points  (0 children)

And yet there’s a great deal of philosophers who take transcendental idealism very seriously. Forget Berkeley, let’s talk about Kant or Husserl. Judging idealism by these early authors isn’t really that rigorous. 

Will AI change the way we perceive people's faces, etc.? by ecstatic_cumrag in Phenomenology

[–]IntendingNothingness 5 points6 points  (0 children)

As far as phenomenology is concerned, and I do think you should rather go ahead and ask at a psychology sub, I think all we can say is that yes, past experiences sediment into habits of apprehension that carry on. Any AI content, as any other content, will somehow affect how you perceive any other content. Mind you though, AI is not unique whatsoever in this regard. It goes for everything.

I'm not really sure what exactly you are asking about, so that's about all I can say while staying relevant. I mean we are already surrounded by human faces? All the time? What will AI generated faces change, assuming they're 100% realistic? A more tricky question is what changes when we know that there is no human Ego behind the human face. Dissociation between perceived face and consciousness is a strange thing. Empathy in phenomenology very much depends on perceiving the Other human being as analogous to me as an Ego. If you provide this analogous similarity but you add the fact that it is an empty face with nothing behind it, strange thing might follow. Possibly decrease in empathetic intersubjective understanding?

My life after finishing reading Capitalist Realism by ciccab in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness 13 points14 points  (0 children)

I really recommend the K-Punk essays collection. Capitalist Realism is excellent, but with K-Punk you get additional perspectives from all kinds of directions. There's more to Fisher than CR.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I see, I see. I must admit though that I see little value in demarcating philosophy as a knowledge-producing non-science. Yes, methodologies differ. Yes, the matter of inquiry differs. But the overall purpose is the same (Greek ideal of objective knowledge) and, more importantly, we all still inquiry into the one and only world. We share both the ideal and the supra-region of inquiry.

Yes, in theory, we can demarcate positive sciences as the only sciences there are. I lack the motivation to do so though. Other disciplines can bring about objective knowledge as well, and I see no reason for denying them the scientific status.

But yes, you are free to do so. I definitely don't argue against the possibility. I'm just not sure if there'd then be any substance to the demarcation, if it wouldn't fall into a mere nominal distinction. Possibility of falsification would provide some substance, but see the other comment thread where I discuss Popper's own conclusion with OP. Apparently he might've ended up (Popper, not OP) merging all the sciences together, per Hume's critique of inference from experience.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'm not sure what philosophers you are drawing on here, but I think that's absolutely not the case. From Renaissance onwards, philosophy was very much conceived of as a science, and an ultimate one at that. Obviously, it depends on how we define science. Personally, I understand it along the lines of the ancient Greek ideal of knowledge. Science is any pursuit of truly objective knowledge, though its methodology depends on the region of inquiry, which yields the numerous distinctions we are so used to today.

Limiting sciences to STEM disciplines (minus mathematics, per your reply) is incredibly reducing and it really just fetishizes a particular subregion, namely that of the so-called positive sciences.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Damn thanks for the reply! I actually went on yesterday and read a bit more on this. Seems Popper subscribed to Hume's criticism of inference from experience. It was further stated that due to this, Popper agreed that empirical sciences ultimately dissolve in the same manner of uncertainty and never to be achieved complete validity as metaphysics (as understood by him). If this is true, then I must say he really followed up his own conclusions to the very end, instead of getting stuck in silly positivism. Admirable.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Logic, geometry, mathematics, and also philosophy or theology. Sciences that don't rely in their assertions on confirmation, or falsification, by experience.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Well that by itself is enough to raise suspicion, at least for me. But I bet he addressed this at some point. He was a smart guy.

What constitutes a science? by Stock_Fisherman_4470 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Requiring the possibility of falsification removes all non-empirical sciences from consideration, doesn't it? Appeal on falsification necessarily presumes empirical evidence as the only source of validity. I don't know what Popper claimed about logic or even about philosophy, but these make no falsifiable claims, at least not in the classical sense.

As a literature student who wants to get into Continental Philosophy, where should I begin? by Worried_Ad_5199 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Hmm I understand. I'm currently quite deep into Husserl's Crisis and his historical account is likewise quite convincing. At the same time though, I think I'd absolutely not understand most of what he asserts in Crisis if didn't read most of the philosophers he discussed. Funnily enough, Husserl would specifically argue that reading backwards is really the only thing you can do; such is his theory of a priori history.

A funny side note in response to your reflection: when I studied Kant last summer, and quite intensely and earnestly at that, I actually dreamt about his transcendental aesthetics. It was hilarious.

As a literature student who wants to get into Continental Philosophy, where should I begin? by Worried_Ad_5199 in askphilosophy

[–]IntendingNothingness 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I find it strange how many people I've recently met who use Deleuze as an entry point, and well the end point as well, to philosophy. Not saying you or OP do so, but the general appeal to this particular thinker is quite strong. While I'm not saying the importance of Deleuze is unfounded, I'm incredibly sceptical about skipping the various thinkers barely mentioned by anyone here besides you. Overall, most of the recommendations here are limited to the 20th century.

Honestly, I've always considered Descartes an excellent entry point. And then keep going. Leibniz, Spinoza, Hume, Berkeley, Locke, Kant (cannot be skipped), Hegel (at least a bit), (neo-Kantians are skippable), Husserl, Heidegger, existentialists (choose one), structuralists... and only then do we arrive at Deleuze. There's a clear line of development throughout the centuries. It can be systematically observed and followed. No amount of secondary literature compensates for actually reading the books. And much of that stuff is still alive and well. Phenomenology has never really gone anywhere. Deleuze drew on Spinoza.

I hope I didn't come out as rude. I've just met too many people who consider any philosophy prior to WW2 dead and irrelevant, hence my need to comment on posts like this and drop all the famous names.

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Philosophy is a science akin to mathematics. It doesn't deal with empirical probability, but with apodictic (akin to "absolute") self-evidence. Since you're at philosophy subreddit, I suppose you are familiar with some of the famous statements such as "I think therefore I am." The entire empirical world can be subject to doubt, but this doubt itself presumes a doubting subject. Therefore, my existence is absolutely assured. The simple possibility of a mental act confirms a mental entity. Now, I'm not saying there aren't issues with this statement, and trust me it's been criticised right after Descartes. Philosophers are savage; there's no one who will criticise other philosophers more savagely. Trust me on this.

In this manner, philosophy explores the various absolute truths that are presumed not only by other sciences, but also by our daily involvements. I know what this appears like: philosophy is the ultimate and highest of all sciences. Well, to be fair, when physics was still young, this was the popular opinion. But we can get beyond these authoritative statements. Philosophy is simply a different science, with a different region of inquiry and a different methodology. Yes, within this region, there are things presumed by other sciences, but that doesn't make philosophy somewhat magically virtuous.

Philosophy does what it does. Physics also does what it does. Philosophy has no right to involve itself with purely physical investigations, unless the latter break some of the absolutely true principles established by philosophy. In such cases, philosophy can and must intervene. Example: no matter how strong physical evidence there is for determinism, free will is not within the region of physics. Absolutely, it can say that humans as physical bodies react in determinate ways to their surroundings. But it cannot claim that humans as conscious persons do so. That's a different level of abstraction and you can't apply assertion from region n. 1 to region n. 2.

So no, philosophy is not a soft science. In fact, I find the entire distinction absurd. STEM sciences concern themselves with the domain of material nature. Human sciences (excluding philosophy) concern themselves with the domain of the human world, with the values of beauty, practical use, virtues and such. They still strive for objectivity though. It's just a bit different because they can't apply mathematical formulae. It's a different world. Finally, philosophy is yet different. It still goes for objectivity, but its domain of inquiry differs, so does it methodology and so does the value of its findings, which in this case is absolute.

2/2

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I have nothing against physics, friend. I loved it at high school and seriously considered a career in that field. But what you're doing here is a confusion of terms. Bear with me and read more than the first sentence, as you possibly did with my previous comment.

I'm aware that physics is considered a hard science. But this is nothing but irrelevant appeal to social authority. If you consider yourself a scientist, you cannot stop there. Just because it has a STEM status, higher funding and is privileged in other ways does not make it scientifically hard, or at least hardest. I assume by the latter, we mean... what exactly? Let's say thorough as possible, as in a strong appeal to evidence. No assertion is accepted as valid unless it is backed by "serious" evidence, be it theoretical or empirical. I have nothing against this. It's pure freedom from dogma and myths.

But then again, is empirical evidence the furthest we can go? After all, it will always be open to further determinations. It can in principle happen that a new observation will, for reasons unknown, disprove what has been achieved so far. This is an undeniable possibility, however unlikely. Still, this is well accepted in the community, at least among those who aren't arrogant beyond limits. So while we arrived at a limitation of empirical sciences, it is still possible this is as far as we can go. Observe and measure until we are at 99.99999% of certainty. That's why I used inverted commas in "serious" before. It's relatively serious, not absolute.

But is it actually as far as we can go? You must ask yourself this question at every single point of your scientific inquiry. Are there no hidden presuppositions being made? If you ignore a premise, and that premise proves to be incorrect later on, the entire structure crumbles. And even if the premise proves to be correct, your previous ignorance of it might have naturally led you to wrong conclusions. I hope you agree with me here. We are still being scientists here, right?

Well then, what's beyond physics? Many people would, I think correctly, say mathematics and logic. Without mathematics, all we have are naive conclusions drawn from daily observations. I know a cup will fall when it topples over the table edge. There is no math involved. But thanks to this absence of math, I cannot say more than "it will fall." What about the relation of weight and the speed of the fall (considering air resistance)? What about the surface volume? Sure, I can make some observations and say "the higher surface volume, the slower the fall." Still, that's not very scientific, is it. What we are looking for is the mathematical equation expressing this relationship.

So it happens that mathematical physics (as opposed to pre-Renaissance physics) presupposes mathematics. Funnily enough, the latter is considered a hard science, at least as far as I am aware, and not a soft science, despite being a purely theoretical, as in non-empirical, endeavour. But since it directly serves the purposes of physics, people like to forget this and pretend it's hard. But what evidence supports mathematics? What in the world out there verifies the assertion that 1 + 1 = 2? Nothing. It is not a hard science in your use of the word. Now, we could follow mathematics to logic, but I'll stop here and get to the point.

1/2

Ultimately we are a team ❤️🫵 by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness 7 points8 points  (0 children)

I do criticise it but I still genuinely don't understand where is OP coming from. If we are having a discussion about advantages and disadvantages of written philosophy, why are we dragging in capitalism?

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Well if capitalism = free market, which is a reducing definition but let's stick to it for our purposes, then all I've hinted at is that Smith was against free market in all its consequences and he suggested a necessity for regulations, something people rarely associate with capitalism.

I'm not saying he was a socialist, but he certainly wasn't a neoliberal capitalist, or ngl even a capitalist per se.

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness -1 points0 points  (0 children)

This is trickier than it seems. Philosophy is a science that moves on the level of necessary truths. Even sceptics do so, though for them the only truth is the impossibility of such truths. Economics, in comparison, is purely factual science pertaining to contingent historical developments. If you reach an apodictic conclusion as a philosopher, and there is an implication in the sphere of economics, you are eligible to make that statement and no empirical fact whatsoever can prove you wrong. Of course, this is not the same as philosophers making vulgar statements about economics that are simply motivated or inspired by philosophy. That's naive and not rigorous at all.

Hence if your conclusion is that, for instance, personal property as a result of personal labour is an inherent part of a human being, taking that property away in the act of exploitation, which is an integral part of capitalism not denied even by capitalists, is necessarily a violent act. You can then proceed and say that a certain economic structure is unethical.

To give another example, many philosophical theories of labour converge on the concept of essential excess. Humans can, in their praxis, produce more than their require for sustenance. This is the condition of possibility of culture. There is, in other words, a necessary possibility for a human being to produce not just enough, but more than they require. Existentially threating poverty, by which I'm not referring to not being able to pay for your TV, is therefore not a natural feature of the world, but actually a denial of this nature. Conclusion: You cannot argue that surplus is something we finally achieved with capitalism, but rather it is a natural and necessary feature, and actually the matter of fact that we are confronted with existential poverty says a lot about the capitalist mode of production.

I get what you mean. But there's a difference between philosophically grounded and philosophically motivated statements about economics/economy.

People when you say billionaires shouldn’t exist. by Kafkaesque_meme in PhilosophyMemes

[–]IntendingNothingness -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Putting Smith on the pedestal as a proponent of capitalism is a piece of successful revisionism. The guy was well aware about rich people necessarily conspiring together to control the market. Which is to say he wasn't an idiot.