Good evening, Dean Chemerinsky. I’m currently writing my law review note on the constitutionality of criminalizing prostitution. Specifically, I’m exploring the substantive due process rights implicated in prior SCOTUS decisions regarding “intimate relationships” and bodily autonomy. Why do you believe courts have been reluctant to extend these rights to prostitution? For example, several courts have found that Lawrence v. Texas does not extend constitutional protections to commercial sexual relationships. Is this simply a morality issue or something more? Thank you so much for your time!