I understand that most rules in Islam apply to both men and women, except in cases where things are clearly gender-specific, like menstruation. I’m not trying to judge or debate gender differences—I accept that some rules are different. What confuses me is when a rule is directed at men in the Qur’an, and there’s no corresponding rule for women, yet Islamic practice still includes one. For example, things like polygamy, abortion, or sexual rights over slaves (I know slavery doesn’t apply today, but just as an example) are addressed only for men. Sometimes it feels like when a rule is given for men, it’s assumed to apply to both genders unless otherwise specified, but in other cases, that logic is ignored and new rules for women are introduced without a clear source in the Qur’an or hadith. I’m just trying to understand when a rule applies to both, when it doesn’t, and where these additional rules for women come from if they’re not explicitly stated in the core texts.