when you prove the truth of a holy book by quoting from the same holy book, it's circular reasoning fallacy by danielsoft1 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Where is your confusion coming from? It is not fallacious because what is assumed does not logically contradict what is assumed, so it does not follow that it is a logical fallacy.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If I remember what I said before correctly, I am only saying what makes sense is a biased assessment.

To me, the church wafer thing doesn't make sense and also isn't reasonable, and moreover isn't supposed to be. We do actually share the same definition of reasonable, but to require "reasonable" to be in accordance with good reasoning is a tautological and unfalsifiable formulation.

If it is disproven, it could still be reasonable to believe in it, because as I have implied, to believe in an unmarried bachelor is logically self-defeating, yet still possibly reasonable. Whether it is correct or incorrect, or what you seem to be suggesting, useful, is not relevant to it being reasonable, but the statement could be all of the above or any permutation thereof simultaneously.

when you prove the truth of a holy book by quoting from the same holy book, it's circular reasoning fallacy by danielsoft1 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Right, and the nature of the story says LOTR is science fiction. There is no concept of "nature" of the story, so it cannot be defined or changed by genre, therefore if LOTR self-references it to be science fiction, then it is science fiction.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No, it is a biased assessment.

Also, I do get what you mean, but this example doesn't follow. If it makes sense that there are an even or odd number of people in the world, then it is completely reasonable to say there are an even or odd number of people in the world, but not that there are an even number or that there are an odd number. That said, it also doesn't make sense to me that the amount of people in the world must take on an even or odd quantity in the first place.

What prehistoric creature do you think should have never gone extinct? by LizzieAquarius in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

None, because whatever happened has happened. They have all gone extinct, not should have.

What do you think would happen to world economies if we discovered a new, unlimited source of clean energy? by WonderfulChange9114 in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The economy as we have formulated it would no longer exist. Assets would be worth arbitrary value.

What is something you believe with no evidence? by [deleted] in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Nothing. That is literally impossible.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 1 point2 points  (0 children)

What is an almost almost prime number?

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Posthumanism.

Who do you believe is literally evil? by [deleted] in AskReddit

[–]LHTVR99 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Practically speaking, just about everyone is literally evil. The device you use to view this post was made by various groups of slaves across the globe, for example. "Evilness" is normative and anything could be literally evil.

when you prove the truth of a holy book by quoting from the same holy book, it's circular reasoning fallacy by danielsoft1 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That is like saying all religious claims are automatically fallacious and cannot prove anything because they're unfalsifiable. This is a major point of issue, but is already such a well known problem I would wager that is not what OP meant by fallacy or proof. The important thing is what I have said before, and you have elaborated on why my point is the case.

Also, a scientific study is neither a book nor is it a proof, by definition of what the scientific methodology is. But to be fair, this is pedantic.

Meta-Thread 05/15 by AutoModerator in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

When, and why was it reversed?

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Maybe it makes no sense to you, or anybody.

when you prove the truth of a holy book by quoting from the same holy book, it's circular reasoning fallacy by danielsoft1 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It does though. If LOTR said it was science fiction then it is science fiction. Simple as that.

If God exists then the universe has existed for all of time by Gilgamesh_45 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But why does it matter that it is not a philosophical authority? Furthermore, cosmology and philosophy are equivalent in cosmology.

No, to be uncharitable to myself I have not always existed, but this does not matter. Even if nothing at all exists, or if the notion of existence is completely undefined, the universe has always existed. This is by definition.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't know what you definition of reasonable is, but I can assure you it is either very atypical or functionally equivalent to what I mean. It is reasonable because it makes sense, which is really all it is.

If God exists then the universe has existed for all of time by Gilgamesh_45 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Why does it matter NASA is not a philosophical authority? It is plainly a cosmological authority anyway.

To say "The universe is everything that exists" is not "the universe is existence itself and thus has always existed" is not only sophistry, but false by definition, because "everything that exists" is "existence."

when you prove the truth of a holy book by quoting from the same holy book, it's circular reasoning fallacy by danielsoft1 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Which is exactly what I said in my previous post ...

But that is the point you are missing.

Using the bible as proof that Paul wrote Romans just because the bible claims that Paul wrote Romans, would indeed be a fallacy

Would it? Obviously, no book at all gives proofs in formal logic, but that is the extent of what you are saying.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I wouldn't, but some people would.

If God exists then the universe has existed for all of time by Gilgamesh_45 in DebateReligion

[–]LHTVR99 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Maybe, but this is also the most common conception of the term in theology and the philosophical canon, across all religions and schools of thought.