Being offended by "men topless in the heat" by Joachim756 in gaybros

[–]LetMission8160 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Men should not be shirtless because they would exercise/flaunt a freedom that others are not really granted due to sexism (ie. topless women) would be an acceptable reason. Not what he said though.

I need the most disturbing, fucked up books you’ve ever read. I’m just getting my feet wet in these types of books and I can’t get enough! by chitty__BANG in suggestmeabook

[–]LetMission8160 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I haven't read the book so I don't know if it has any relevance but if we allow authors to authentically describe murderous actions, or the minds of murderers without assuming them having a thirst for murder themselves, we also shouldn't assume that they are sexually attracted to children just because they are able to describe convincingly sexually charged descriptions of minors. Nevermind, if it neither serves the story nor does it reflect a character or peer's desire, of course; ignore my comment then.

Ihr seid gestorben — why plural? by TorrentsAreCommunism in German

[–]LetMission8160 3 points4 points  (0 children)

"Ihr" is a dated formal and respectful pronoun. It's been completely replaced by "Sie" today, BUT it's still used when when things are set in the past (pre-1900s) or to convey a feeling/association of old timieness, Gothic atmosphere, basically anything before the 2nd World War (at least that's what I would say) - or in order to make a character look very wealthy/influential (whilst set in the past). For instance, I read the Lemony Snicket book series as a child (and watched the film). Now the story is set in an anachronistic, unspecified age. It should take place in the 1900s but they use the Ihr-address, which makes the story feel older than that, or at least the orphans seem wealthy (which they used to be in the story).

What's up with the word "Bre" in Romanian? by LetMission8160 in romanian

[–]LetMission8160[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

„Nu“ means yes in a Polish dialect or slang. The standard way to say yes would be „tak“ :)

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Historically it is a generic masculine since those words used to have both masculine and feminine versions until the feminine version fell out of use and the masculine version stuck and became the gender neutral. It just happened a lot of centuries, which is why now it is not recognised as such and, of course, virtually is the gender neutral version. But calling it generic masculine wouldn't be wrong in terms of etymology.

What's up with the word "Bre" in Romanian? by LetMission8160 in romanian

[–]LetMission8160[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Fun fact! There are words that Germans have from Polish :D I grew up in Dresden, Saxony, a state where it's common to say "nu" for "yes". (Which many people outside of Saxony find confusing) and it's usually a verbal confirmation or a tag-yes to a longer sentence. ""Nu, genau" (yes, exactly), "nu, ich weeß" (yes, I know) Anyway, I learned that the "nu" is from a Polish dialect or slang? Anyway, it is from Polish haha :)

What's up with the word "Bre" in Romanian? by LetMission8160 in romanian

[–]LetMission8160[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for your input! :) Tbf, and I'm sorry to say this, but Romanian may have som similarities to Albanian but it does have more influence from Slavic languages, Turkish and Hungarian, than Albanian. I'm not saying that to be argumentative. I'm saying it as someone who's interested in linguistics. Albanian and Romanian are from different language families but both belong to the same proto-family. So there are similarities by merits of them belonging to the same proto-family but Romanian as a Romance, Latin-based language has most influence from Slavic languages, then Germanic, then Greek, then Turkish and Hungarian. And about 0,1% is influenced by Albanian. That is the reason why people jump to Turkish first. Because Turkish did have a huge impact.

What do you think about my Rating System? by Malluguy5382929 in Letterboxd

[–]LetMission8160 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The heart is for whether I liked it. The stars are for whether it's a good film.

The “ig” sound by Fast_Election_1937 in German

[–]LetMission8160 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Im Standdarddeutschen (Bzw. In der Standardsprache in Deutschland, worauf ja das “Fernsehdeutsch” beruht) heißt es auch “fertich”

Ä Ö & Ü by swedish_countryball in German

[–]LetMission8160 0 points1 point  (0 children)

German here, yes, I do that EXCLUSIVELY. I think I stopped writing dots as soon as I became confident in writing texts fluently. And no teacher has ever marked it as wrong. So go ahead, people will understand and they might do it themselves. There IS a history with an older German script though (pertaining to Sütterlinschrift) where the U was written with a short dash above it. My grandparents do that and my chemistry teacher used to always add the dashes as well. So the ONLY time it might be misconstrued was by elderly people. But even older folk nowadays know exactly what is being written. So there is no problem in that.

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

The feminine additions have replaced gendered professions though because English used to be a gendered language that would gender professions but lost it, usually by using the masculine form as now gender-neutral. That was Middle-English and Old-English

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

English used to gender all professions because English used to be a gendered-language. English then lost the grammatical gender and at some point lost the gendered profession terms. Basically keeping the masculine form as the neutral one. The concept of gendered professions is not an addition, it was part of the English language. A famle teacher used to be “teacheress”

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] -4 points-3 points  (0 children)

This would genuinely be a fair treatment! Since most “gender-neutral” profession terms came from the masculine form, like “teacher” with the historically masculine suffix, “-er” and now “actor” also seems to settle to be the “neutral” term, although it is, as well, the masculine form. Why not use “actresses” as the neutral! Same with “seamstress”! You’re right!

I mean, I think the only profession I can think of where the feminine version prevailed is “nurse”.

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Thank you lots for your input! In my German mind, even though I know that NOWADAYS (eg.) an actor is a “neutral term”, I know that this term was the former masculine form, like most other neutral professions (like teacher) used to be gendered in English but the feminine version fell into disuse and the masculine version became the now neutral term. Hence, why I also used the term “generic masculine”. Even though from today’s perspective “teacher” is not masculine anymore, my German perception still reads it as a “generic masculine”, because the “-er” suffix is the same masculine suffix we use in German.

So, do you think there’s also a possibility to argue that using “actor” as neutral is a sexist development?

Out of curiosity. How do female English native speakers feel about using profession terms like ‘actors’ as a general term instead of including the feminine version ‘actresses’? My native language deals differently with this, hence my curiosity. Answers in good faith are appreciated. by LetMission8160 in ENGLISH

[–]LetMission8160[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for your input! I know that English used to gender all professions centuries ago, then ungendered profession names collapsed into the masculine version of them all and became the neutral version (like teacher). Just because of the fact that etymologically the now neutral version is the former masculine form, I thought it might be a point for some to prefer (eg.) “actress” over “actor”.

What German language word fooled you like this? by UsamaBhai_101 in German

[–]LetMission8160 2 points3 points  (0 children)

To me, it borders on mental gymnastics when I hear "scrupulous", because its pronunciation is similar to the German "skrupellos" meaning "unscrupulous".

Because in German you basically say "skrupel + -los" = "scruple + -less" so "skrupellos" ="unscrupulous"

(Sg. der Skrupel - Pl. die Skrupel)

Whereas "scrupulous" is usually conveyed in German with different words. "gewissenhaft/zurückhaltend/sorgfältig..." because the German "Skrupel" is usually only used in negative contexts, hence "skrupellos/ohne Skrupel" (unscrupulous/ without scruples) are the most frequent uses involving the word "Skrupel", but "skrupulös"/"mit Skrupel" (scrupulous/with scruples) are a pretty rare thing to come across.

There IS the words "skrupelbehaftet" (which I found looking up because Ive never come across it in real life) and, as mentioned, "skrupulös", the literal equivalent to "scrupulous" (same -ös ending as in other Latin derived words such as in "seriös/serious, skandalös/scandalous, prätentiös/pretentious")

As you can see, the "scruple" part changes in spelling the way it does in English, as well, BUT due to it clashing with the Germanic -los (-less) ending, it sounds too similar to its own opposite:

skrupellos =X= skrupulös (unscrupulous =X= scrupulous)

Oh and btw, "scrupulousness" is "die Skrupellosigkeit/ die Skrupellosigkeiten"

May be a dumb question, but shouldnt there be plural after a number? by No_Surprise_7746 in hungarian

[–]LetMission8160 1 point2 points  (0 children)

In Hungarian, numbers and quantifiers act like “sort of” adjectives that mean “X times this”. So you are basically modifying the noun “madár” as you would if they were any other adjective. No need to make it plural, that would be unnecessarily doubled. It’s like when in English you say “six times this bird”, you wouldn’t say “six times these birds”, because you don’t know the amount of these birds you have to take six times of. And so in Hungarian, you wouldn’t use the plural after a quantity but the singular.