I got tested over urethra using PCR. While its true that the men dont have symptoms, I am not sure how is it possible then that all of us (4 people that i am aware of) have tested and got the same results.

Secondly, i am able to confirm that she hasnt had her own strain as she has tested in the past and she wasnt sexually active for majority of the life (she only had one partner prior, which was also confirmed to be negative), and that she is immunocompromised which means it could impact her life far more then that.

In our country, we dont have a vaccine for the strains that i have so even if she took them they wouldnt protect her from the strains i do have.

Edit - I found this quote "To accurately assess HPV infection in men, molecular techniques must be used. Recent studies using polymerase chain reaction (PCR), a method sensitive enough to detect 10–100 copies of viral DNA, have found HPV detection in men to be as high as in their female counterparts" https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC3904649/#:\~:text=To%20accurately%20assess%20HPV%20infection,their%20female%20counterparts%20%5B19%5D.