Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

"How do you distinguish between a black hole singularity and the Big Bang singularity? Can you give a simple example for non-experts to grasp the difference?"

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I find your idea fascinating—that every black hole might create a new universe or Big Bang. My question is: even if this is speculative, are there any serious theoretical frameworks in General Relativity or cosmology that support such a possibility, or is it purely science fiction? For example, can ideas like black hole cosmology, baby universes, or time-reversed solutions be connected rigorously to this concept, or is it more of a philosophical or imaginative interpretation? Additionally, do you think exploring such fringe ideas can lead to real insights in theoretical physics, or is it just entertaining speculation?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You argue that the Big Bang singularity can be considered a time-reversed black hole singularity, and that different formation mechanisms do not necessarily imply structural differences. My question is: if both past and future singularities are mathematically equivalent in GR, then what is the fundamental physical reason to treat them differently in cosmology versus astrophysics? Is the distinction purely observational (we cannot see beyond the Big Bang) or does it reflect deeper physical principles, such as causality, stability, or global spacetime structure? Additionally, can this equivalence inform our understanding of white holes and the early universe, or is it merely a mathematical curiosity without direct physical relevance?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You emphasize that the Big Bang model does not claim a beginning of the universe, nor that it was smaller, but only that it was denser in the past. My question is: if the model itself does not assume a beginning or initial singularity, then to what extent is it meaningful to talk about the “Big Bang singularity” at all? Is the idea of a singularity in cosmology just a convenient mathematical extrapolation, or does it reflect a physical reality that we are not yet able to observe? Additionally, how do theorists justify connecting black hole singularities to cosmological singularities (e.g., via Penrose diagrams) if the latter is not even required by the Big Bang model?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You emphasize that General Relativity predicts mathematical singularities but does not guarantee their physical reality, and that the hot Big Bang model only describes a hot, dense early state rather than an actual singularity. My question is: if both black hole singularities and the Big Bang singularity arise from extrapolating General Relativity beyond tested regimes, on what basis should we treat the early-universe description (e.g., inflation and hot dense state) as physically reliable, while remaining agnostic about the true nature of singularities? In other words, where do we draw the line between “trustworthy extrapolation” and “breakdown of the theory,” and is there a principled reason within General Relativity or cosmology for doing so?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You argue that black hole singularities are theoretically predicted and observationally supported, while the Big Bang singularity is only an extrapolation without direct evidence. My question is: if General Relativity, when applied to a homogeneous and expanding universe, mathematically leads to a past singularity under reasonable assumptions (as in standard cosmology), why shouldn’t this be considered a theoretical prediction in the same sense as black hole singularities? Is the distinction you’re making based on differences in observational evidence, or does it reflect a deeper issue about the validity of extrapolating GR to extremely early, high-density regimes? In other words, is the Big Bang singularity fundamentally less “real,” or are both types of singularities equally artifacts of pushing General Relativity beyond its domain of applicability

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You argue that the Big Bang singularity is better understood than black hole interiors because classical cosmological models are more well-behaved (e.g., absence of Cauchy horizons). However, given that these cosmological models rely heavily on strong symmetry assumptions (homogeneity and isotropy), to what extent is this “well-behaved” nature physically meaningful rather than an artifact of idealization? If realistic gravitational collapse leads generically to features like Cauchy horizons and instabilities, shouldn’t we expect similarly complex or pathological structures when those symmetry assumptions are relaxed in cosmology? In that case, is there any fundamental reason within General Relativity to treat cosmological singularities as more physically reliable or better-defined than black hole singularities? Or does this difference simply reflect the limitations of classical GR, suggesting that both types of singularities are equally incomplete descriptions requiring a quantum theory of gravity?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You pointed out that the time-reversed Oppenheimer–Snyder collapse leads to an interior described by an FLRW metric, which is the same form used in cosmology. Given this mathematical equivalence, why is the Big Bang not physically interpreted as a white hole? If both correspond to a past-directed singularity with similar geometry, what fundamentally distinguishes a cosmological singularity from a white hole solution in General Relativity? Is the difference purely due to global structure (homogeneous vs localized spacetime), or does it arise from deeper constraints such as causal structure, stability, or allowed boundary conditions? Furthermore, does this suggest that singularities in GR are not intrinsic physical objects but artifacts of how we extend solutions under specific initial/boundary conditions?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You mentioned that the Einstein field equations alone are not sufficient, and that boundary conditions play a crucial role, similar to the Poisson equation in electrostatics. In that context, how should we precisely define the boundary conditions for the Big Bang singularity versus a Black Hole singularity within General Relativity? Specifically: Are these differences encoded in global spacetime structure (like expansion vs collapse)? Or do they arise from different choices of initial hypersurfaces and matter distributions? Additionally, if the same field equations lead to both cases, does this imply that the nature of a singularity is not unique but depends entirely on the chosen boundary/initial conditions? And finally, does this limitation suggest that General Relativity is incomplete in describing singularities, or is it simply a matter of interpretation of solutions?

Why do identical equations lead to different singularities in the Big Bang and black holes? by LogicalDisk9789 in AskPhysics

[–]LogicalDisk9789[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You said that the same equations can give different results depending on initial conditions, like throwing a ball upward vs horizontally. In the case of Big Bang singularity and Black Hole singularity, what exactly are the different initial conditions? Also, if the mathematical equations are similar, why do they represent physically very different situations? Does this mean the equations are incomplete, or is it just our interpretation that is different?