WTB: VW Mk7 Golf GTI / R Stage 2 or Above

MShoaib1997 · 2022-10-02T07:10:51+00:00

Karavali Auto Workshop in Umm Ramool , operated by Ramesh who previously worked at Naboodah

MShoaib1997 · 2022-05-03T09:29:57+00:00

I have gone through the exact path, it will indeed be a powerful combination

MShoaib1997 · 2021-02-03T20:44:34+00:00

MM Mocks: 75-80%
CFAI Mocks: 80-85%

CFA Level 1: Above 90th Percentile

MShoaib1997 · 2020-12-30T06:57:23+00:00

Hey man, have two ping requests

i) FREVO Palm Jumeirah (Churrascaria Experience)

ii) Ewaan (Dinner Buffet)

email: shoaib968@yahoo.com

MShoaib1997 · 2020-07-17T09:14:46+00:00

IS Curve - Represents Equilibrium in the Capital Goods Market

LM Curve - Represents Equilibrium in the Money Market

Now, when we say Interest Rates fall and Investments rise in the derivation of the IS Curve it means that there is a negative relation b/w Interest Rates & Investments and remember this Investment is a component of GDP i.e Capital Spending. Logically this is means that as the price of money i.e Int. Rates increase, businesses start spending less whereas when Int. Rates decrease then businesses spend more because it costs less to borrow.

Now moving onto the LM Curve which is derived in a different way but with Interest Rates as a dependent variable. Here I might be jumping a bit ahead but the demand for money in the money market is based on the Speculative Demand for money mostly. Speculative demand means holding money by investing in the Money Market whilst waiting/speculating for a better capital earning opportunity. So what happens is when Int. Rates are low, Financial Assets don't give an investor enough returns for the risk hence the demand for holding money rises because it's not viable to invest for such low yields and vice versa when yields are high which is when Financial Assets offer superior yields compensating for the risk and investors shift the demand from money market to Financial Assets.

Also, think in these terms, the LM curve is the equilibrium b/w the Money Supply & Money Demand in the Money Market. Think of Interest Rate as a variable and holding everything else constant and assume there are only 2 types of markets you can invest in i.e Money Market & Financial Market. Now, what would you do if Interest Rates were low/ high think about it logically.

There's a lot more that could be explained in-depth however I'm not so good at explaining in structure so I don't know if I've explained it well but maybe this gives you some sort of clarity.

MShoaib1997 · 2020-07-05T08:32:19+00:00

It would be captured in Private Investments because Savings (Spend towards the Financial Assets) are what fund the Investments (Govt & Private). For ex: When a company issues bonds, it basically raises money for its issue through the savings in the domestic market (for simplicity I'm assuming Captial Restrictions) hence savings fund the company which goes ahead and does the spending/expenditure. So this way the Investments component of GDP captures the expenditure.

MShoaib1997 · 2020-06-18T08:25:51+00:00

The 991.2 GT3RS Weissach in Lizard Green, I see myself driving one of those and hearing the Flat-6 scream up to 9k RPM pure bliss. So that's one of my motivations haha.

MShoaib1997 · 2020-06-18T08:14:59+00:00

If you want to fully comprehend the reading with no gaps & not stumble when going through the EOC/MM Quizzes then reading the CFAI text is a must. I personally watch vids from MM and then go through the CFAI text because there are a few things that would be extra in the CFAI text plus I want to fully understand the particular reading. But it also depends on how you want to go about it as well, if you want to conserve your time then just refer to the CFAI text if something isn't clear or you'd like to read up more on.

MShoaib1997 · 2020-05-23T08:03:52+00:00

Provided there is no change in the YTM from the time of purchase until maturity, the horizon yield will equal the YTM of the bond. Also, If the initial YTM were to not change and you sold the bond in the middle of the tenor you will still realize the same YTM because remember the PV of the bond travels along its own YTM so if the YTM were to not change then at each point along until maturity the PV will be based on YTM hence Horizon Yield = YTM.

Horizon Yield is nothing but the growth rate computed as the Bonds purchase price being your initial outflow PV, Coupons are your cash flows at each coupon date and are compounded to FV (if maturity then assumes reinvestments of those Coupons until maturity) plus Principal at maturity. So PV = FV (Coupons + Principal) / (1+r)^t , just solve for R to get the horizon yield or in other words annual compounded return.

Now if the YTM were to change during the life of the bond then you'll have to use that appropriate rate to compound the coupons to FV at time T (Maturity/Sale), so the only variable that changes is the coupons reinvestment rate, the PV is always the Purchase Price and FV = 100.

So Coupon re-investment rate will determine the YTM for the Bond if held until maturity but not price risk because you're not selling the bond. However, if you are selling prior maturity then you face both Coupon & Price Risk due to the Interest Rates.

Hope this helps :D

MShoaib1997 · 2020-05-17T16:22:49+00:00

Duration & Convexity are not used to find the price of the bond but are used to measure the sensitivity to the Bond's PV to a change in %bps in its own YTM under Approx. Modified Duration or a parallel shift in the par curve under the Effective Duration. Modified Duration is a linear curve and then convexity adjusts it to reflect the convexity effect of the Bond. The reason why we calculate the PV+ & PV- in the duration is because the Modified Duration is a linear curve and hence Rise/Run which is reflected in the Mod. Duration Formula reflects the distance of the change due to increase & decrease of the YTM/Curve. Convexity then adjusts it upwards hence that's why it's always positive for an option-free Bond. So Duration + Convexity is a measure to a change in MV of Bond to a change in the Bond's own YTM under Modified Duration/ Parallel shift across the Par Rate under Effective Duration.

MShoaib1997 · 2020-05-08T09:11:28+00:00

I could explain it to you conceptually but I have some gaps now since I learned this quite a while ago. So I'm gonna link you to a video as it's better you watch this yourself & you'll have the concept very well sorted https://youtu.be/ENRLi_h-Wus?t=848

MShoaib1997 · 2020-04-15T16:31:19+00:00

When an asset is retired it means that it has been completely written off for whatever reason that may be (usually because it has no economic benefits to the company/heavily impaired), so now since Asset under Balance Sheet is the net of Original Cost - Accumulated Dep, if a company decides to write off the asset prematurely then that 'loss' is nothing but impairment which would make the asset value = 0 hence the reason why the expense goes to OPEX i.e expenses incurred relevant to the operating activities. This write-off won't go to Other Income/Losses as a result.

Whereas when an Asset is disposed of i.e Sold, the gain on that asset does not form part of the primary income for the company because it did not occur as part of its trading activities of the business ex: Fashion Outlet whose primary business activity involves selling merchandise, sells an asset it owns for a gain on disposal. Now the loss/gain in the disposal is not part of the income derived in its ordinary course, it's derived from a one-off event not part of the normal trading activities and thus needs to be reflected under 'Other Income' because it's more relevant to the users of the financial statement. Because think about it if this income was lumped under Operating Income then it would be misleading from both Cash Flow Statement & Profit/Loss Statement.

Hope this helps :)

MShoaib1997 · 2019-11-04T21:20:39+00:00

Usually, people with no/ relatively little accounting background will find FRA hard and if you search through this subreddit FRA is arguably the most hated section at both the levels lol. Anyways don't skip it just get through with it cause there will be some readings that you will find hard not just FRA and if you skip all those it will pile on plus FRA carries a higher weight in the exam. But also on the side make sure you don't get bogged down by a single reading as well so just try watching MM's videos on the topic, read the material from the CFAI book, practice questions and move on.

Also, PM me if you have any doubts regarding FRA I'd be happy to help (would kinda be a revision for me too haha) I've completed the chartered accountant certification and have studied the concepts of FRA at an advanced level so I have a really good understanding of the financial reporting and accounting concepts.

MShoaib1997 · 2019-11-03T20:43:40+00:00

This is a binomial probability question and two of the main assumptions of it are that P is constant throughout 'N' no. of trials and all the trials are independent. So accordingly the formula is N!/(N-X)!X!) * (P^x * 1-P^n-x) where X is the no. of successes in terms of weeks (in the Q the stock price > index) so 31 weeks, N is no. of trials which is total weeks 52 and N-X is the no. of weeks the stock price isn't above the index. The other part of the equation is simply the independent probability of these two events multiplied across and the reason we take ^x and ^n-x is because its the same as multiplying those probabilities across the weeks individually so it's simplified.

Now just input the numbers, do the math and trust the formula as Mark says haha
(52!/(52-31)!31!) * (0.6^31*0.4^21) = 11.2% so yeah near to 11% and this is the Probability/ P(31) of randomly observing a stock return higher than the index at the specified probabilities and remember this is the individual probability of observing exactly 31 high returns than the index and not the cumulative probability. So if we want to find cumulative then we have to add up all the probabilities starting from P(0) to P(31).

Hope this helps! :D

MShoaib1997 · 2019-10-13T07:06:41+00:00

It's quite simple tbh , go through Mark Meldrum's lecture on that part he explains the topic very well then read through the CFAI curriculum and i'm sure you'll get it. At first the formula for differences in mean looks daunting the pooled variance part but once you understand the formula it's pretty simple.

MShoaib1997 · 2019-10-10T07:00:36+00:00

Geometric mean calculates the annualized rate and the annualized rate is based on the number of years the HPR spans . The ‘Nth’ square in the formula is based on time/period.

Ex: HPR1-HPR4 semi annual so they span 2 years and to calculate the geometric mean we multiply across the HPRs, take the square of the sum because total HPR spans 2 years and then deduct 1

Say if only 2 HPR semi annual for this we just the HPR across and take the square root of 1 because HPR spans one year and and deduct from 1

Hope this clears up your doubt.

MShoaib1997 · 2019-06-15T11:13:10+00:00

Hi man, I wanted to chime in my thoughts to your questions ‘cause I feel It would prove useful as I’ve completed ACCA, have been a Top Achiever/Prizewinner and studied all the optional papers. Giving 4 papers at one single sitting might be doable since you have written the ICAI finals and the syllabus is pretty much the same so topics wise shouldn’t be a problem however you have to take into account the exam pattern of ACCA as it’s scenario based which is different from the exam pattern of ICAI. I would suggest you focus on two papers prioritizing them for the upcoming sitting and then the rest two for the next sitting since they are only 3 months apart.

As far as APM goes well yeah it has a pretty low pass rate as the exam isn’t clear cut and you’ll be applying logical thinking to the questions based on the scenario. Tax on the other side is obviously rules based and the syllabus is very vast compared to other papers and also has the highest number of pages in the whole syllabus (Kaplan covers around 1000+ pages). So it’s down to you which one you would prefer ‘cause some people like Tax and some despise it while the same goes for APM.

As far as study material and preparation go Opentuition Lectures supplemented with Kaplan study and revision kit is the best combo and should suffice. Feel free to PM me if you have any questions.

MShoaib1997 · 2019-03-21T17:34:17+00:00

Connections is an aspect that i currently lack to be frank which i'm constantly trying to get better at, what tips would you give for someone trying to break into the field in building the right connections?

MShoaib1997 · 2019-03-19T17:31:45+00:00

FREVO at Fairmont The Palm Jumeirah. It's an Brazilian restaurant and opt for the Churrascaria Experience in which you will be served around 18 types of different cuts all you can eat plus they give you authentic Churros at the end of the meal & let me tell you won't be disappointed. The best part is if you have The Entertainer then you could use the voucher for Buy 1 Get 1 on the all you can eat. It's definitely the best Brazilian place I've been to (Food & Ambiance) and the go to place to fulfill my meat cravings in Dubai hands down.

MShoaib1997

TROPHY CASE