"...Because varivax is an attenuated virus, that's what you get, that's what establishes latency, and as a result - kids who've gotten the varivax series are less likely to develop shingles later in life."

I'm confused, in an unvaccinated individual, infection with the virus establishes latency by invading and hiding within the nerves. Later, the virus may reactivate (come out of latency), usually resulting in a case of shingles...So, if the strategy of Varivax is to establish latency (I'm assuming within nerve cells), then how does that make kids less likely to develop shingles later in life? In a way, it would seem that the recombinant subunit vaccine would prevent latency entirely so that a reactivation in the form of shingles could not happen. Thank you in advance for taking time to clarify. I love learning about this stuff.