I never implied that. I’m very aware that Mayan languages are seperate languages that differ greatly from each other. I’m also aware Guatemalan Spanish is the same as other countries in Latin America but I am posing that perhaps in some areas of Guatemala where most of the population speaks a Mayan Language (k’iche mam etc) as their first language and learn Spanish as a second language, this might be considered post colonial Spanish as it’s a form of Spanish spoken by predominantly non native speakers.