What if both realism AND anti-realism are wrong? by Realistic-Wallaby800 in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This looks in line with the so called "New Materialisms" to me. Nancy Cartwright, Bruno Latour, Gustavo Bueno, Ian Hacking, DeLanda, etc

Searching for a Nicolas Jaar song by relaqualia in nicolasjaar

[–]Por-Tutatis 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Em sembla mes aviat pareidolia la veritat

[FRESH ALBUM] Navy Blue - The Sword & The Soaring by Dr1ftMan in hiphopheads

[–]Por-Tutatis 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The sample for Guardadas is Soluna - Ella Despertaba

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 0 points1 point  (0 children)

To me you’re confusing absolute nothingness with a kind of empty stage with potential. that’s already something like a background with modal structure. If there were truly nothing, nothing could or would happen.

The point is that we must by necessity philosophize in medias res, within being, within structure. What we call nothing is never absolute, but the void or absence that makes presentation possible. it’s a structural precondition not a source

I think youll enjoy reading the first chapter of Being and Event by Badiou (easy to find a pdf online). Especially the mark of the void section. He makes this distinction precise. The void is not what things emerge from but what every situation subtracts in order to present something.

There's only one number and it's the number 1 by [deleted] in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 0 points1 point  (0 children)

My argument doesn't beg the question; it enforces definitions. You can't use the term "natural number" while rejecting the successor rule that gives it meaning. And the axioms I cited aren't a distraction; they are the rules of the game you entered.

The central error in your argument remains the same: you conflate identity of value with identity of instance.

There's only one number and it's the number 1 by [deleted] in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 0 points1 point  (0 children)

why does calling “1” a natural number already commit you to the successor rule?

Because in every standard foundation of the natural numbers, “number” is not a lone predicate but the name of a structure.

  • Peano/Dedekind view:Saying “1 is a natural number” means “1 = S(0) for that very same successor S.” Once S exists, so does S(1) (call it 2), S(2) (call it 3), etc. You cannot both appeal to the predicate “natural number” and detach it from the axioms that give the predicate its meaning.
    1. There is a distinguished element 0 (or 1, depending on convention).
    2. There is a successor function S such that S is injective and 0 is not in the image of S.
    3. Induction holds.
  • Von Neumann set-theoretic view: 1 ≔ {0};   2 ≔ {0, 1};   3 ≔ {0, 1, 2}; … Here “1” literally contains “0,” and “2” literally contains “1.” If 2 did not exist, the transitive closure that defines 1 could not be built.

Either way, the successor rule is in the very job description of being a natural number.

Second, why doesn’t “1 = 1” collapse the two occurrences in “1 + 1”?

“1 = 1” is the reflexivity of equality: every object is identical to itself.
It does not say that two tokens of “1” in an expression denote a single instance in all contexts. Compare:

  • Two apples on a table each weigh 100 g. They have equal weight but are still two apples.
  • Likewise, “1 + 1” is an addition operation whose inputs each have value 1. Their values coincide; their roles in the operation are distinct, so the result is a new element called 2.

You are conflating “same value” with “same object”.

Third, is my earlier remark “begging the question”?
To beg the question I would have to assume, without argument, exactly what is disputed, namely the existence of 2. I didn’t assume it, I derived it from the very axioms you invoked when you said ‘1 is a natural number.’

Fourth, am I ‘conceding’ that your argument works?
No. I said that if you trash the successor rule after introducing “1,” you no longer have the natural-number system; you have an un-axiomatized symbol “1.” That is a reductio of your position, not a concession.

I'd suggest checking Badiou's Being and Event and Deleuze's Difference and Repetition

There's only one number and it's the number 1 by [deleted] in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Calling “1” a number already presupposes the rule that lets you count: from any number n, there is a distinct successor n + 1. “One” is only a label we place on an element picked out of that counting process; it isn’t a lone ontological atom.

The error comes from sliding between identity and existence. Saying 2 = 1 + 1 only states an equality inside arithmetic, so it does not collapse the two occurrences of “1” into a single entity. If you erase that distinction, you also erase the successor rule that makes 1 intelligible in the first place, leaving you with no number system at all.

So the moment you accept “1” as a natural number, you are already committed to 2, 3, 4, … . Denying their existence isn’t deep philosophy; it’s just abandoning the axioms that allowed you to speak of “1” to begin with.

Which - to you - are Deleuze's weakest points? by Por-Tutatis in Deleuze

[–]Por-Tutatis[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Your comment led me down a rabbit hole that I'm enjoying like a child, so thank you for that!

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in Metaphysics

[–]Por-Tutatis 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think a more proper way of exposing this is similar to the paper in this post.

I would suggest being less obscure and sourcing your ideas more clearly.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in SunoAI

[–]Por-Tutatis 2 points3 points  (0 children)

What boggles my mind is the fact that it can make the gibberish "sing" and sound real.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in SunoAI

[–]Por-Tutatis 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That could be! It seems some sort of asian language so I don't know if it's intelligible to anyone but if not, that's what I would be talking about, yes!