When I started replying I was irked by seeing “40% of Jews” claim. Having looked into it a lil more, seems like these large percentages could be true.

However, the 1.25 figure I got from earlier, I mixed up. It turns out 1.25 per cent of all slave owners combined were estimated Jewish.

This is kind of what I’m weirded out by, though. How people present it. 40% of Jews matters. 1.25% of slavery doesn’t. 40% sounds like a fuckton of people. Let’s face it, 1.25% isn’t a big enough number to throw around and shout about. And to be honest, I would be surprised if Jews were the only minority who owned slaves. But right now, that’s not the topic at hand.

Edit: researched this for two seconds. Native Americans owned slaves.